1. Narration (Direct/Indirect Speech)

Q: She said, “Had I known the truth, I would have helped you.”

How would you change this into indirect speech?

A. She said that had she known the truth, she would help me.

B. She said that if she had known the truth, she would help me.

C. She said that if she had known the truth, she would have helped me.

D. She said she would help me if she had known the truth.

Answer: C. She said that if she had known the truth, she would have helped me.

⸻

2. Voice (Active/Passive)

Q: Change the voice: “Who has broken the window?”

A. By whom has the window been broken?

B. The window was broken by whom?

C. By whom is the window broken?

D. The window has been broken by whom?

Answer: A. By whom has the window been broken?

⸻

3. Idiom

Q: What does the idiom “throw in the towel” mean?

A. To express anger suddenly

B. To give up or surrender

C. To start afresh

D. To create trouble unnecessarily

Answer: B. To give up or surrender

⸻

4. Jumbled Sentence

Q: Rearrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence:

P. we / Q. once / R. met / S. casually

A. R Q P S

B. Q R S P

C. Q R P S

D. Q P R S

Answer: D. Q P R S

(Once we met casually.)

⸻

5. Synonym

Q: Choose the synonym of “Ubiquitous”

A. Rare

B. Scattered

C. Omnipresent

D. Invisible

Answer: C. Omnipresent

⸻

6. Antonym

Q: Choose the antonym of “Taciturn”

A. Reserved

B. Garrulous

C. Silent

D. Shy

Answer: B. Garrulous

(Taciturn = habitually silent; Garrulous = excessively talkative)

⸻

7. One-word Substitution

Q: A person who can speak many languages is called:

A. Philologist

B. Monolingual

C. Polyglot

D. Bilingual

Answer: C. Polyglot

⸻

8. Error Spotting

Q: Identify the part with the error:

“Hardly had he reached (A) / the station than (B) / the train departed. (C) / No error (D)”

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Answer: B.

(It should be “Hardly had he reached the station when the train departed.”)

⸻

9. Cloze Test (Vocabulary Context)

Q: Choose the best word:

The scientist’s explanation was so ______ that the audience was left confused and disoriented.

A. lucid

B. convoluted

C. elementary

D. transparent

Answer: B. Convoluted

(Convoluted = extremely complex and difficult to follow)

⸻

10. Reading Comprehension (Inference)

Q: If “All roses are flowers” and “Some flowers fade quickly”, which of the following conclusions must be true?

A. Some roses fade quickly.

B. All flowers are roses.

C. Some roses are not flowers.

D. No conclusion follows.

Answer: D. No conclusion follows.

⸻

Comprehension Passage (Approx. 200 words)

In an increasingly interconnected world, the concept of “global citizenship” is gaining traction as individuals and institutions recognize the limitations of national boundaries in addressing collective challenges. Climate change, pandemics, cyber threats, and economic instability are no longer confined within a single nation-state; they are transnational in nature and demand collaborative responses. While traditional notions of citizenship are rooted in allegiance to a specific country, global citizenship advocates a broader identity—one that transcends geography, culture, and politics.

Critics argue that global citizenship is a utopian ideal lacking in practical enforceability, pointing to the dominance of nationalism and sovereignty in international affairs. Moreover, they contend that such a concept risks undermining local identities and responsibilities. However, proponents counter that global citizenship need not negate local belonging; rather, it encourages a dual consciousness—being rooted in one’s culture while being ethically engaged with global concerns.

Education plays a pivotal role in nurturing this mindset. Curricula that emphasize empathy, cultural understanding, and environmental stewardship can prepare individuals to think and act beyond borders. As humanity faces complex global dilemmas, cultivating a sense of shared responsibility may no longer be optional, but imperative for sustainable coexistence.

⸻

MCQ

Q: Which of the following best captures the central theme of the passage?

A. The failure of nation-states in combating modern threats

B. The conflict between nationalism and education policies

C. The emergence and necessity of global citizenship in addressing global issues

D. The elimination of local identities in favor of a global culture

⸻

Correct Answer: C. The emergence and necessity of global citizenship in addressing global issues

⸻

Explanation:

• Option A is partially true but too narrow. The passage mentions the limitations of nation-states but emphasizes the need for global collaboration, not their total failure.

• Option B distorts the message; education is shown as a tool to promote global citizenship, not a battleground for nationalism.

• Option D is incorrect. The passage explicitly argues that global citizenship does not negate local identity.

• Option C correctly captures the essence: the rise of global citizenship and its importance in solving transnational issues.

Nobel prize winners

Physiology or Medicine: Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun were awarded for their discovery of microRNA and its role in gene regulation.  

Physics: John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton received the prize for their foundational work in developing artificial neural networks, contributing significantly to machine learning advancements.  

Chemistry: David Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John M. Jumper were recognized for their breakthroughs in protein science, including computational protein design and predicting protein structures.  

Literature: Han Kang was honored for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and explores the fragility of human life.  

Peace: The Japanese organization Nihon Hidankyo received the prize for its efforts to achieve a world free of nuclear weapons and for demonstrating through witness testimony that nuclear weapons must never be used again.  

Economic Sciences: Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson, and James A. Robinson were awarded for their studies on how institutions are formed and affect prosperity.

Economics 

Q1 Which of the following is not a necessary condition for the de velopment of India ? (1) Capital Accumulation (2) Resource discovery (3) Population growth (4) Technological develop-ment 

✅ Correct Answer: (3) Population Growth

📖 Explanation:

Let’s examine each option in the context of economic and sustainable development:

(1) Capital Accumulation

• Essential for economic development.
  
  

• More capital = more investment in infrastructure, industry, services.
  
  

• Encourages productivity, employment, and GDP growth.
  
  

✅ Necessary condition

(2) Resource Discovery

• Helps in utilizing natural wealth, reducing import dependence.
  
  

• Fuels energy, manufacturing, and exports.
  
  

• Not always controllable, but when it happens, it’s highly beneficial.
  
  

✅ Important contributor (though not always necessary, it still boosts development)

(3) Population Growth

• Here’s the key point: While population can be a resource, uncontrolled population growth leads to:
  
  

  • Pressure on resources
    
    

  • Unemployment
    
    

  • Infrastructure stress
    
    

  • Environmental degradation
    
    

• In India's case, population growth has created challenges rather than directly aiding development.
  
  

❌ NOT a necessary condition — in fact, controlled/stable population is better for development.

(4) Technological Development

• Drives efficiency, innovation, competitiveness, and service delivery.
  
  

• Critical in all sectors: agriculture, industry, health, governance.
  
  

✅ Absolutely necessary

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (3) Population Growth – It is not a necessary condition for development and may even hinder it if uncontrolled.

Q2 Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (1) Public Accounts Committee (2) Union Ministry of Finance (3) Finance Commission (4) Inter-State Council 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (3) Finance Commission

📖 Explanation:

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
  
  

• Its primary function is to recommend:
  
  

  • Distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
    
    

  • Principles governing grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    
    

  • Measures to augment the consolidated fund of states to support Panchayati Raj and municipalities.
    
    

These recommendations are made every 5 years.

🔍 Let’s examine the other options:

1. Public Accounts Committee
   
   

   • A parliamentary committee that examines public expenditure and audits.
     
     

   • It has no role in recommending grants-in-aid. ❌
     
     

2. Union Ministry of Finance
   
   

   • Implements policies, but does not recommend principles of grants — that’s the role of the Finance Commission. ❌
     
     

3. Inter-State Council
   
   

   • A body to promote cooperation and coordination between states and the center.
     
     

   • It does not recommend financial grants. ❌
     
     

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (3) Finance Commission

Reasoning 

Q1 Find the missing number in the series:

2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?, 95

Options:
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 54
(4) 57

🧠 Solution:

Let’s observe the pattern of differences:

Series: 2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?, 95

Now find the differences between the terms:

• 3 − 2 = 1
  
  

• 7 − 3 = 4
  
  

• 16 − 7 = 9
  
  

• 32 − 16 = 16
  
  

• ? − 32 = ??
  
  

• 95 − ? = ??
  
  

Now observe:
1, 4, 9, 16 → These are perfect squares:
1², 2², 3², 4²...

So the next difference should be: 5² = 25

→ ? = 32 + 25 = 57

Check final difference:
95 − 57 = 38 = 6² + 2 → not a perfect square, but the series seems consistent till 57.

This confirms the hidden pattern is in the differences of perfect squares:

So,

• 2
  
  

• 2 + 1² = 3
  
  

• 3 + 2² = 7
  
  

• 7 + 3² = 16
  
  

• 16 + 4² = 32
  
  

• 32 + 5² = 57
  
  

• 57 + 6² = 93 → Hmm! But we have 95 instead of 93.
  
  

Could it be a typo in the question? Possibly.
But based on consistent logic:

✅ Correct Answer: (4) 57

🧩 Pattern Used:

nth term = previous term + n², where n starts from 1

Q2 Statements:

1. All scientists are logical.
   
   

2. Some logical people are creative.
   
   

3. No creative person is careless.
   
   

Conclusions:

I. Some scientists are definitely creative.
II. No scientist is careless.
III. Some logical people are not careless.
IV. All creative people are logical.

Options:
(1) Only II follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) None of the conclusions follow

✅ Correct Answer: (2) Only III follows

📖 Explanation:

Let’s test each conclusion logically using Venn diagram rules:

Conclusion I: Some scientists are definitely creative
→ Wrong

• Statement 1: All scientists are logical
  
  

• Statement 2: Some logical are creative
  
  

• But we cannot establish a direct link between scientists and creative people.
  
  

• It’s a possibility, not a definite conclusion.
  
  

Conclusion II: No scientist is careless
→ Wrong

• No direct relationship is given between scientists and careless people.
  
  

• We only know "no creative person is careless", and scientists may or may not be creative.
  
  

• Hence, this cannot be concluded definitively.
  
  

Conclusion III: Some logical people are not careless
→ ✅ Correct

• Since some logical people are creative (Statement 2), and no creative person is careless (Statement 3),
  → those logical + creative people are not careless.
  → Therefore, some logical people are definitely not careless ✅
  
  

Conclusion IV: All creative people are logical
→ Wrong

• Statement 2 says: Some logical people are creative
  
  

• That doesn't imply All creative people are logical.
  
  

• It’s the reverse of what's given — and reverse conclusions are invalid.
  
  

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (2) Only III follows

Which among the following chro nology is correct regarding four ‘samvatas’? 

(1) Gupta–Gregorian–Hizri–Saka 

(2) Gregorian–Saka–Hizri–Gupta 

(3) Saka–Gregorian–Hizri–Gupta 

(4) Hizri–Gupta–Gregorian–Saka 

Ans.  Saka → Gupta → Hijri → Gregorian

🗓️ Chronological Order of the Four Samvats:

1. Gupta Samvat – Started around 319–320 CE during the reign of Chandragupta I (used in ancient India).
   
   

2. Gregorian Calendar – Introduced by Pope Gregory XIII in 1582 CE (modern international calendar).
   
   

3. Hijri (Islamic) Calendar – Began in 622 CE, marking Prophet Muhammad's migration (Hijrah) from Mecca to Medina.
   
   

4. Saka Samvat – Officially started in 78 CE, later adopted as the national calendar of India.

🧠 Now, let’s arrange them in chronological order (earliest to latest):

• Saka Samvat (78 CE)
  
  

• Gupta Samvat (319 CE)
  
  

• Hijri Calendar (622 CE)
  
  

• Gregorian Calendar (1582 CE)
  
  

✅ Correct Option:

None of the given options are exactly correct, but if we evaluate them:

Let’s go through them:

1. Gupta–Gregorian–Hizri–Saka ❌
   (Gupta is before Gregorian, but Hijri comes before Gregorian too. And Saka is the oldest.)
   
   

2. Gregorian–Saka–Hizri–Gupta ❌
   (Gregorian is the latest, not the earliest.)
   
   

3. Saka–Gregorian–Hizri–Gupta ❌
   (Saka is first ✅, but Gregorian is wrongly placed before Hijri and Gupta.)
   
   

4. Hizri–Gupta–Gregorian–Saka ❌
   (Hijri is after Gupta and Saka, so wrong.)
   
   

✨ Correct Chronology (not in options):

Saka → Gupta → Hijri → Gregorian

Q2 The home of Gargi, Maitrey, and Kapila was at
(1)Vidisha
(2) Ujjain
(3)Pataliputra
(4)Mithila 

👩‍🎓 Gargi and Maitreyi:

• Both were renowned women philosophers during the Vedic period.
  
  

• They are prominently mentioned in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, where they engage in philosophical debates, especially with sage Yajnavalkya.
  
  

• **Their association is with the ancient kingdom of Mithila (present-day northern Bihar and parts of Nepal).
  
  

🧙‍♂️ Kapila:

• An ancient sage known as the founder of Samkhya philosophy (one of the six classical schools of Indian philosophy).
  
  

• While exact details of his birthplace are debated, Mithila is often cited as one of the regions associated with his teachings.
  
  

✅ Correct Answer: (4) Mithila

📌 Explanation:

• Mithila was a significant center of learning and philosophy during the Vedic period.
  
  

• All three — Gargi, Maitreyi, and Kapila — are linked to intellectual traditions rooted in this region.

Q3 Which area of India was known as Avantika in ancient times ? 

(1)Avadh 

(2)Ruhelkhand 

(3)Bundelkhand

(4)Malwa

Ans.  🏛️ Answer: (4) Malwa

📖 Explanation:

• Avantika was the ancient name of the region whose capital was Ujjayini (modern-day Ujjain).
  
  

• This region formed a major part of Malwa, located in western Madhya Pradesh.
  
  

• Malwa was known for its strategic location, trade routes, and cultural significance.
  
  

• In classical Sanskrit texts and Puranas, Avantika is often described as one of the seven sacred cities (Sapta Puri).
  
  

🚫 Why not the others?

1. Avadh (Awadh) – Located in present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh, capital was Faizabad/Lucknow. Not related to Avantika.
   
   

2. Ruhelkhand – Northern Uttar Pradesh, named after Rohilla Pathans, much later than ancient times.
   
   

3. Bundelkhand – Lies between UP and MP, but south-east of Malwa, and not synonymous with Avantika.
   
   

So again, the correct answer is:

✅ (4) Malwa

The Social System of the Harap pans was : 

(1) Fairly egalitarian 

(2) Slave-Labour based 

(3) Colour (Varna) based 

(4) Caste based 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (1) Fairly egalitarian

📖 Explanation:

• Archaeological findings from cities like Mohenjo-daro, Harappa, Dholavira, and Lothal reveal planned cities, standardized bricks, uniform weights, and similar urban layouts.
  
  

• There is no clear evidence of sharp social hierarchies, such as palaces or royal tombs that would indicate a dominant ruling class.
  
  

• The uniformity of housing and town planning suggests a fairly egalitarian society, at least in its urban planning and resource distribution.
  
  

🚫 Why not the others?

2. Slave-Labour based – Unlike Mesopotamia or Egypt, no evidence of slavery has been found in Harappan records or excavations.
   
   

3. Colour (Varna) based – The varna system appears later, around the Vedic period (post-1500 BCE), not during the Harappan era.
   
   

4. Caste based – The caste system developed well after the decline of Harappan civilization, particularly in the later Vedic and post-Vedic periods.
   
   

🧠 Conclusion:

The Harappan social system appears to have been pragmatic, organized, and relatively equal, based on current evidence.

Hence, the most accurate answer is:

✅ (1) Fairly egalitarian

Q5 Which of the following Vedas pro vides information about the civil isation of the EarlyVedicAge? (1)Rig-veda (2)Yajur-veda (3)Atharva-veda (4)Sama-veda 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (1) Rigveda

📖 Explanation:

• The Rigveda is the oldest and most important of the four Vedas.
  
  

• It was composed around 1500–1200 BCE, during the Early Vedic Period.
  
  

• It consists of 1,028 hymns (suktas) dedicated to various deities like Agni, Indra, Varuna, and Soma.
  
  

• The Rigveda offers valuable insights into the political, social, economic, and religious life of the Aryans during the Early Vedic age.
  
  

  • Talks about tribal society, pastoral economy, simple settlements, wars, and rituals.
    
    

  • Mentions sabha and samiti (early assemblies), kingship, and roles of priests.
    
    

🚫 Why not the others?

2. Yajurveda – Focuses on rituals and ceremonies, mostly for priests. It belongs more to the Later Vedic period.
   
   

3. Atharvaveda – Contains charms, spells, and practical knowledge, and reflects later cultural and religious developments.
   
   

4. Samaveda – Consists mainly of chants and melodies, drawn mostly from the Rigveda, used in ritual singing.
   
   

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (1) Rigveda – It is the primary source of Early Vedic history and civilization.

1. Iron (Fe)

• Ores: Hematite (Fe₂O₃), Magnetite (Fe₃O₄)
  
  

• Type: Oxide ores
  
  

2. Aluminium (Al)

• Ore: Bauxite (Al₂O₃·2H₂O)
  
  

• Type: Oxide ore
  
  

3. Copper (Cu)

• Ores: Chalcopyrite (CuFeS₂), Malachite (CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂)
  
  

• Type: Sulphide and carbonate ores
  
  

4. Zinc (Zn)

• Ores: Zinc Blende / Sphalerite (ZnS), Calamine (ZnCO₃)
  
  

• Type: Sulphide and carbonate ores
  
  

5. Lead (Pb)

• Ore: Galena (PbS)
  
  

• Type: Sulphide ore
  
  

6. Tin (Sn)

• Ore: Cassiterite (SnO₂)
  
  

• Type: Oxide ore
  
  

7. Mercury (Hg)

• Ore: Cinnabar (HgS)
  
  

• Type: Sulphide ore
  
  

8. Gold (Au)

• Found in native form (Au), often in quartz veins
  
  

• Type: Native/elemental form
  
  

9. Silver (Ag)

• Ore: Argentite (Ag₂S)
  
  

• Type: Sulphide ore
  
  

10. Manganese (Mn)

• Ore: Pyrolusite (MnO₂)
  
  

• Type: Oxide ore
  
  

11. Magnesium (Mg)

• Ores: Magnesite (MgCO₃), Dolomite (CaMg(CO₃)₂)
  
  

• Type: Carbonate ores

📌 Tips to Remember:

• Oxide ores often end in -ite (like hematite, magnetite, bauxite).
  
  

• Sulphide ores usually contain S (like galena, cinnabar, chalcopyrite).
  
  

• Carbonate ores include CO₃ in their formula (like malachite, calamine).
  
  

• Gold and silver are often found in native form or mixed in quartz veins.

Physics 

Q1 For which Diode is used ? (1) modulation (2) oscillation (3) amplification (4) purification 

✅ Correct Answer: (4) Purification

But wait — "purification" is a slightly misleading word here. In electronics, this likely refers to "rectification", which is the conversion of AC to DC — a process that “purifies” the current by allowing only one direction of flow.

📖 Explanation:

• A diode is an electronic component that allows current to flow in one direction only.
  
  

• It is commonly used in rectifiers, which convert alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC).
  
  

• This process is essential in power supplies for electronic devices.
  
  

• Because it blocks one half of the AC signal, it helps “purify” the current — hence the term used here.
  
  

🚫 Why not the others?

1. Modulation – Done by transistors or modulators, not diodes.
   
   

2. Oscillation – Involves oscillators, not simple diodes.
   
   

3. Amplification – Handled by transistors or amplifiers, not diodes.
   
   

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (4) Purification (in the sense of rectification — AC to DC conversion)

Q2 Who among the following devel oped the technology of under ground nuclear explosion ? (1) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha (2) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai (3) Dr. Raja Ramanna (4) Dr. P. K. Iyengar 

✅ Correct Answer: (4) Dr. P. K. Iyengar

📖 Explanation:

• Dr. P. K. Iyengar played a central role in developing the nuclear device that was used in India's first underground nuclear test, codenamed “Smiling Buddha”, conducted on 18 May 1974 at Pokhran, Rajasthan.
  
  

• He was a leading nuclear physicist at Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) and instrumental in the design and execution of the test.
  
  

• Though Dr. Raja Ramanna was the Director of BARC and led the overall operation, Dr. P. K. Iyengar was primarily responsible for the technical development of the nuclear device.
  
  

👥 What about the others?

1. Dr. Homi J. Bhabha – Father of India’s nuclear program but passed away in 1966, before the nuclear test happened.
   
   

2. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai – Known as the father of India’s space program, not directly involved in nuclear weapons development.
   
   

3. Dr. Raja Ramanna – Directed the overall Pokhran-I project, but the device's design and technology were mainly credited to Dr. Iyengar.
   
   

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (4) Dr. P. K. Iyengar – Developed the underground nuclear explosion technology.

Q3 Which among the following types of coal produces most heat per unit ? (1) Coal (2) Lignite (3) Anthracite (4) Pit 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (3) Anthracite

📖 Explanation:

• Anthracite is the highest grade of coal, with:
  
  

  • The highest carbon content (over 90%)
    
    

  • Lowest moisture and volatile matter
    
    

  • Hard, shiny, and black appearance
    
    

• It has the highest calorific value, meaning it produces the most heat per unit when burned.
  
  

• It burns slowly, with very little smoke, making it ideal for domestic and industrial use.
  
  

🔥 Comparative Calorific Values (approximate):

1. Anthracite – Highest (~8500 kcal/kg or more) ✅
   
   

2. Bituminous Coal – Moderate (~6000–7500 kcal/kg)
   
   

3. Lignite – Low (~4000–5000 kcal/kg)
   
   

4. Peat / Pit (probably a typo for Peat) – Very low (~2500–3500 kcal/kg)
   
   

Note: "Pit" seems to be a mistaken option. It might be referring to Peat, which is the lowest grade of coal, formed at the earliest stage of coalification.

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (3) Anthracite – Produces the most heat per unit of all coal types.

Q4 Which among the following waves is used for communica tion by artificial satellites ? (1) Micro waves (2) Radio waves (3) A. M. (4) Frequency of 1016 series 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (1) Microwaves

📖 Explanation:

• Microwaves are a type of electromagnetic wave with frequencies ranging roughly from 1 GHz to 100 GHz.
  
  

• These waves are ideal for satellite communication because:
  
  

  • They can penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere easily.
    
    

  • They can carry large amounts of data.
    
    

  • They have short wavelengths, allowing for the use of small antennas.
    
    

  • Less affected by Earth's ionosphere compared to lower-frequency radio waves.
    
    

🚫 Why not the others?

2. Radio waves – Although microwaves are technically a part of the radio spectrum, satellite communication specifically uses high-frequency microwaves, not the traditional lower-frequency radio waves used in AM/FM broadcasting.
   
   

3. A.M. (Amplitude Modulation) – Used in traditional radio broadcasting, not satellite systems.
   
   

4. Frequency of 10¹⁶ series – This falls in the ultraviolet or X-ray region, which is not used for communication because such waves are absorbed by the atmosphere and can be harmful.
   
   

🧠 Final Answer:

✅ (1) Microwaves – Best suited and widely used in satellite communication systems.

Q5 What is found in frequency mod ulation ? (1) Fixed frequency (2) Fixed dimension (3) Change in frequency and di mension (4) Change in dimension only 

Ans. ✅ Correct Answer: (1) Fixed frequency

But let's clarify this based on what is modulated and what remains fixed.

📖 Explanation:

• In Frequency Modulation (FM):
  
  

  • The amplitude (or dimension) of the carrier wave remains constant.
    
    

  • The frequency of the carrier wave is varied according to the information (audio) signal.
    
    

So, the term “Fixed frequency” in the options is a bit misleading, because technically, the frequency changes during modulation. However:

• The carrier wave's central (base) frequency is fixed, but its instantaneous frequency varies around it due to modulation.
  
  

So let’s reanalyze the options with precision:

✅ Best Interpreted Answer:

None of the options are worded perfectly, but the most accurate one is:

✅ (3) Change in frequency and dimension

❗BUT that’s still not technically correct, because in FM, only the frequency changes, not the amplitude (dimension).

✔️ Technically Correct Answer (if worded properly):

Change in frequency only
→ Frequency varies according to the input signal; amplitude stays the same.

🚫 Incorrect Options Explained:

• (1) Fixed frequency – Incorrect; frequency varies.
  
  

• (2) Fixed dimension – Partially true (amplitude is fixed), but not the full picture.
  
  

• (3) Change in frequency and dimension – Incorrect; dimension (amplitude) does not change in FM.
  
  

• (4) Change in dimension only – This describes AM (Amplitude Modulation), not FM.
  
  

🧠 Final Conclusion:

If the question is asking what varies in Frequency Modulation, the accurate answer is:

✅ Change in frequency only (which is not listed exactly in the options)

From the given options, none is fully correct, but option (1) might be marked correct in some exams based on their framing.

Synonyms

1. Obfuscate
(1) Clarify
(2) Confuse
(3) Illuminate
(4) Reveal
✅ Answer: (2) Confuse

2. Pernicious
(1) Harmless
(2) Beneficial
(3) Deadly
(4) Tiring
✅ Answer: (3) Deadly

3. Recalcitrant
(1) Obedient
(2) Defiant
(3) Passive
(4) Cooperative
✅ Answer: (2) Defiant

4. Enervate
(1) Energize
(2) Weaken
(3) Motivate
(4) Encourage
✅ Answer: (2) Weaken

5. Intransigent
(1) Flexible
(2) Adamant
(3) Casual
(4) Agreeable
✅ Answer: (2) Adamant

📕 Antonyms (Difficult Level)

1. Cacophony
(1) Melody
(2) Noise
(3) Harmony
(4) Echo
✅ Answer: (3) Harmony

2. Superfluous
(1) Excessive
(2) Necessary
(3) Fancy
(4) Redundant
✅ Answer: (2) Necessary

3. Disdain
(1) Respect
(2) Dislike
(3) Praise
(4) Ignore
✅ Answer: (1) Respect

4. Taciturn
(1) Silent
(2) Talkative
(3) Angry
(4) Bold
✅ Answer: (2) Talkative

5. Impetuous
(1) Reckless
(2) Thoughtful
(3) Sudden
(4) Hasty
✅ Answer: (2) Thoughtful

Comprehension

In modern society, we are often led to believe that the more choices we have, the freer and happier we will be. Supermarkets offer dozens of cereal brands, online platforms present thousands of movies, and careers span across endless specializations. However, psychologist Barry Schwartz argues in his book The Paradox of Choice that this abundance may, paradoxically, lead to anxiety and dissatisfaction. Too many options can cause decision paralysis, where individuals feel overwhelmed and unable to choose. Even after making a decision, they may ruminate over whether a better option was missed, leading to regret rather than contentment. This is especially evident in affluent societies where the pressure to "choose right" is immense. While some level of choice is essential for autonomy, excessive options can dilute satisfaction. The crux of the paradox lies in the fact that freedom and happiness, although often associated with choice, are not always enhanced by having more of it. Instead, people may benefit from "satisficing" — choosing an option that meets their needs, rather than obsessing over the "best" one. Thus, sometimes, less is more when it comes to making choices.

❓ MCQs (Challenging Level)

Q1. What does the author primarily argue in the passage?
A. Too many choices increase personal freedom and satisfaction.
B. People should strive to choose the best option available.
C. An excess of choices can reduce happiness and cause stress.
D. The availability of choices is irrelevant to human psychology.

✅ Answer: C

Q2. What does the term "satisficing" most closely mean in the context of the passage?
A. Choosing the most popular option available
B. Making no choice at all
C. Selecting an option that is good enough without aiming for perfection
D. Always choosing the cheapest alternative

✅ Answer: C

🧪 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2023

Winners:

• Katalin Karikó
  
  

• Drew Weissman
  
  

Why they won:
For their groundbreaking work on mRNA technology, which directly enabled the development of effective COVID-19 vaccines (like Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna). Their discoveries helped revolutionize vaccine development during the pandemic by showing how modified mRNA can trigger an immune response without harmful inflammation.

🧬 Nobel Prize in Physics 2023

Winners:

• Pierre Agostini
  
  

• Ferenc Krausz
  
  

• Anne L’Huillier
  
  

Why they won:
For experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light. These pulses allow scientists to observe the movement of electrons in atoms in real time — on a scale of attoseconds (1 attosecond = 10⁻¹⁸ seconds). This opens new possibilities for quantum physics, electronics, and chemistry.

⚗️ Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023

Winners:

• Moungi Bawendi
  
  

• Louis Brus
  
  

• Alexei Ekimov
  
  

Why they won:
For the discovery and development of quantum dots — tiny particles that have unique optical and electronic properties. These are now widely used in TV displays, LED lights, biomedical imaging, and more. Their work bridged fundamental science and real-world applications.

🧠 Nobel Prize in Literature 2023

Winner:

• Jon Fosse (Norway)
  
  

Why he won:
For his “innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.” His minimalist, deeply introspective writing explores themes like death, silence, faith, and human vulnerability. He’s known as one of the most important living European writers.

✌️ Nobel Peace Prize 2023

Winner:

• Narges Mohammadi (Iran)
  
  

Why she won:
For her courageous fight against the oppression of women in Iran and her tireless advocacy for human rights and freedom of expression. Even while imprisoned, she continued to raise awareness about abuses, including solitary confinement and torture in Iranian prisons.

💵 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2023

Winner:

• Claudia Goldin (USA)
  
  

Why she won:
For her pioneering research on women’s labor market outcomes over centuries. She showed how gender differences in employment and wages evolved, helping explain why gender gaps still exist. Her work is crucial in shaping policies toward workplace equality.

🔹 1. Synonyms (Choose the word closest in meaning)

1.1 Recalcitrant

a) Obedient
b) Passive
c) Aggressive
d) Uncooperative
✅ Answer: d) Uncooperative

1.2 Obfuscate

a) Enlighten
b) Confuse
c) Simplify
d) Reveal
✅ Answer: b) Confuse

1.3 Ubiquitous

a) Scarce
b) Common
c) Present everywhere
d) Temporary
✅ Answer: c) Present everywhere

1.4 Parsimonious

a) Generous
b) Miserly
c) Humble
d) Proud
✅ Answer: b) Miserly

1.5 Insidious

a) Transparent
b) Harmless
c) Subtly harmful
d) Honest
✅ Answer: c) Subtly harmful

🔹 2. Antonyms (Choose the word opposite in meaning)

2.1 Tenacious

a) Yielding
b) Firm
c) Durable
d) Tough
✅ Answer: a) Yielding

2.2 Vindicate

a) Justify
b) Defend
c) Accuse
d) Forgive
✅ Answer: c) Accuse

2.3 Ephemeral

a) Eternal
b) Brief
c) Instant
d) Vague
✅ Answer: a) Eternal

2.4 Pragmatic

a) Strategic
b) Practical
c) Realistic
d) Idealistic
✅ Answer: d) Idealistic

2.5 Euphoria

a) Misery
b) Happiness
c) Pleasure
d) Excitement
✅ Answer: a) Misery

🔹 3. Reading Comprehension (Based on passage)

Passage:

In a world driven by data, every digital interaction becomes a form of currency. People are tracked across platforms not only for commercial purposes but also to predict social behavior. The ethical implications of this are vast. While convenience is often cited as a benefit of data use, few realize the growing control algorithms exert over our lives. Awareness and regulation are essential if individual autonomy is to be preserved in the digital age.

3.1 What is the central concern of the passage?

a) Decline in online engagement
b) Dangers of algorithmic control
c) Lack of Internet connectivity
d) Rise in social activism
✅ Answer: b) Dangers of algorithmic control

3.2 According to the passage, data is:

a) Meaningless unless sold
b) A modern commodity
c) Not useful for governments
d) Primarily a privacy tool
✅ Answer: b) A modern commodity

3.3 What does the author suggest is necessary for preserving autonomy?

a) Technological innovation
b) Strict surveillance
c) Awareness and regulation
d) Mass data collection
✅ Answer: c) Awareness and regulation

3.4 The tone of the author can best be described as:

a) Sarcastic
b) Concerned
c) Indifferent
d) Humorous
✅ Answer: b) Concerned

3.5 The term “tracked across platforms” implies:

a) Data is deleted
b) Identity is protected
c) Activities are monitored
d) Access is restricted
✅ Answer: c) Activities are monitored

🔹 4. Jumbled Sentences (Choose the correct sequence)

4.1

A. The system collapsed
B. Without warning
C. Leaving everyone shocked
D. And confused
a) B-A-C-D
b) A-B-D-C
c) A-B-C-D
d) B-D-A-C
✅ Answer: c) A-B-C-D

4.2

A. He took a deep breath
B. And stepped onto the stage
C. His hands trembled
D. With nervous anticipation
a) A-D-C-B
b) C-A-D-B
c) A-C-D-B
d) C-D-A-B
✅ Answer: a) A-D-C-B

4.3

A. The judge entered
B. As silence filled the room
C. Wearing a stern expression
D. And took his seat
a) A-C-D-B
b) B-A-C-D
c) A-B-C-D
d) A-C-B-D
✅ Answer: d) A-C-B-D

4.4

A. Climate change is real
B. And it affects everyone
C. Including future generations
D. Unless steps are taken
a) A-B-C-D
b) D-C-B-A
c) A-D-B-C
d) A-B-D-C
✅ Answer: a) A-B-C-D

4.5

A. She submitted her paper
B. With great confidence
C. After months of research
D. And waited for results
a) C-A-B-D
b) A-C-B-D
c) C-B-A-D
d) A-B-C-D
✅ Answer: a) C-A-B-D

🔹 5. Narration (Direct–Indirect Speech)

5.1 He said, “I am working on the project.”

a) He said that he had worked on the project.
b) He said that he was working on the project.
c) He said he works on the project.
d) He said he is working on the project.
✅ Answer: b) He said that he was working on the project.

5.2 She said to him, “Did you complete the task?”

a) She asked him if he completed the task.
b) She asked him had he completed the task.
c) She asked him if he had completed the task.
d) She asked to him if he had completed the task.
✅ Answer: c) She asked him if he had completed the task.

5.3 They said, “We will attend the meeting.”

a) They said that they would attend the meeting.
b) They said they attend the meeting.
c) They said they will attend the meeting.
d) They said that they should attend the meeting.
✅ Answer: a) They said that they would attend the meeting.

5.4 The teacher said, “Do not talk in class.”

a) The teacher ordered to not talk in class.
b) The teacher said not to talk in class.
c) The teacher advised to talk in class.
d) The teacher told them not to talk in class.
✅ Answer: d) The teacher told them not to talk in class.

5.5 He said, “Alas! My friend has failed.”

a) He exclaimed that his friend failed.
b) He exclaimed sorrowfully that his friend had failed.
c) He said that his friend had failed.
d) He was sorry that his friend failed.
✅ Answer: b) He exclaimed sorrowfully that his friend had failed.

🔹 6. Voice (Active–Passive Voice)

6.1 They are building a new bridge.

a) A new bridge is built.
b) A new bridge is being built.
c) A new bridge was being built.
d) A new bridge is building.
✅ Answer: b) A new bridge is being built.

6.2 Did he complete the work?

a) Was the work completed by him?
b) Is the work completed by him?
c) Had the work been completed by him?
d) Has the work been completed by him?
✅ Answer: a) Was the work completed by him?

6.3 The Prime Minister inaugurated the project.

a) The project was inaugurated by the Prime Minister.
b) The Prime Minister has inaugurated the project.
c) The project is being inaugurated.
d) The Prime Minister inaugurates the project.
✅ Answer: a) The project was inaugurated by the Prime Minister.

6.4 Let him handle the situation.

a) Let the situation be handled by him.
b) Let the situation handled by him.
c) The situation let be handled.
d) Let the handling of the situation be done.
✅ Answer: a) Let the situation be handled by him.

6.5 She was writing a letter.

a) A letter had been written by her.
b) A letter was written by her.
c) A letter is being written by her.
d) A letter was being written by her.
✅ Answer: d) A letter was being written by her.

🔹 7. Idioms and Phrases (Choose the correct meaning)

7.1 To cut corners

a) To decorate something
b) To avoid unnecessary steps
c) To do something cheaply or carelessly
d) To take a long route
✅ Answer: c) To do something cheaply or carelessly

7.2 Spill the beans

a) Waste food
b) Reveal a secret
c) Cook too much
d) Lose control
✅ Answer: b) Reveal a secret

7.3 Hit the nail on the head

a) Get hurt
b) Be precise
c) Make a mistake
d) Break something
✅ Answer: b) Be precise

7.4 Cry over spilt milk

a) Waste food
b) Be emotional
c) Complain over something that can't be undone
d) Clean a mess
✅ Answer: c) Complain over something that can't be undone

7.5 Jump the gun

a) React too quickly
b) Celebrate too early
c) Get promoted
d) Be delayed
✅ Answer: a) React too quickly

🏛️ History (Modern India Focus)

1. Which of the following was the primary reason behind the Surat Split in 1907?

a) Clash between extremists and moderates over the method of agitation
b) Demand for separate electorates
c) Launch of Swadeshi Movement
d) Formation of Muslim League

✅ Answer: a) Clash between extremists and moderates over the method of agitation
Explanation: The split occurred due to ideological differences. Extremists like Tilak demanded aggressive methods, while moderates like Gokhale preferred constitutional means.

2. Which of the following revolts is associated with the slogan "Raj karega Khalsa"?

a) Santhal Rebellion
b) Wahabi Movement
c) Kuka Movement
d) Moplah Rebellion

✅ Answer: c) Kuka Movement
Explanation: The Kuka or Namdhari Movement used this Sikh slogan as a call for freedom and religious reform.

3. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission (1946)?

a) Lord Pethick-Lawrence
b) Sir Stafford Cripps
c) A.V. Alexander
d) Lord Mountbatten

✅ Answer: d) Lord Mountbatten
Explanation: Mountbatten was not part of the Cabinet Mission; he came later as the last Viceroy.

4. The term “Drain of Wealth” was first used by:

a) R.C. Dutt
b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c) Dadabhai Naoroji
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

✅ Answer: c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: In his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, he elaborated on how British rule drained Indian resources.

5. The Indian National Army (INA) trial was held at:

a) Bombay High Court
b) Red Fort, Delhi
c) Lahore High Court
d) Allahabad High Court

✅ Answer: b) Red Fort, Delhi
Explanation: The INA trials, particularly of Shah Nawaz Khan, Sehgal, and Dhillon, were held at the Red Fort and evoked massive nationalistic sentiments.

📜 Polity

1. Which of the following is a feature of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?

a) Gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
b) Restored FRs taken away during the Emergency
c) Abolished Article 370
d) Introduced anti-defection law

✅ Answer: b) Restored FRs taken away during the Emergency
Explanation: The 44th CAA reversed many changes made by the 42nd Amendment and protected civil liberties.

2. Which of the following Articles is related to freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse?

a) Article 301
b) Article 19(1)(g)
c) Article 21
d) Article 304

✅ Answer: a) Article 301
Explanation: It guarantees the freedom of trade and commerce across India.

3. Which of the following is a non-justiciable right?

a) Right to Education
b) Right against Exploitation
c) Equal Pay for Equal Work
d) Right to Freedom of Religion

✅ Answer: c) Equal Pay for Equal Work
Explanation: It is a Directive Principle and not enforceable in court, although courts have interpreted it in many rulings.

4. The power of judicial review in India is derived from:

a) The Supreme Court's inherent powers
b) Article 32 and Article 226
c) Article 368
d) Article 143

✅ Answer: b) Article 32 and Article 226
Explanation: These Articles empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs and ensure protection of FRs.

5. Who decides the disqualification of Members of Parliament under the Tenth Schedule?

a) President
b) Election Commission
c) Supreme Court
d) Speaker/Chairman of the House

✅ Answer: d) Speaker/Chairman of the House
Explanation: As per the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer decides disqualification under anti-defection law.

🌍 Geography

1. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Monsoon is correct?

a) Western Ghats receive more rainfall on the eastern side
b) Retreating monsoon is responsible for heavy rainfall in the Himalayas
c) Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall from the northeast monsoon
d) Southwest monsoon is dry and cold

✅ Answer: c) Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall from the northeast monsoon
Explanation: Tamil Nadu lies in the rain shadow region during the southwest monsoon and gets rainfall from retreating (northeast) monsoon.

2. The Doldrums are located:

a) Around 30° latitude
b) At the Equator
c) Around 60° latitude
d) At the poles

✅ Answer: b) At the Equator
Explanation: Doldrums are low-pressure zones with calm winds near the Equator, known for minimal horizontal air movement.

3. Which of the following rivers forms an estuary?

a) Godavari
b) Ganga
c) Narmada
d) Yamuna

✅ Answer: c) Narmada
Explanation: Narmada, flowing westward into the Arabian Sea, forms an estuary rather than a delta.

4. Which is the correct sequence of the following states in terms of decreasing forest cover (area-wise)?

a) Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
b) Madhya Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Arunachal Pradesh
c) Arunachal Pradesh > Madhya Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
d) Odisha > Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh

✅ Answer: a) Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha
Explanation: According to FSI reports, Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest area, followed by Arunachal Pradesh.

5. The type of rock most commonly associated with petroleum reservoirs is:

a) Basalt
b) Granite
c) Sandstone
d) Marble

✅ Answer: c) Sandstone
Explanation: Porous sedimentary rocks like sandstone are ideal for storing hydrocarbons.

📊 Economics

1. The ‘base effect’ in inflation refers to:

a) Impact of taxation on inflation
b) Comparison of current inflation with a very low base year index
c) Influence of demand-side policies
d) Supply-side inflationary pressure

✅ Answer: b) Comparison of current inflation with a very low base year index
Explanation: If the previous year's base index was low, even a small price increase now can show high inflation.

2. Which of the following taxes is progressive in nature?

a) Excise duty
b) GST
c) Personal income tax
d) Custom duty

✅ Answer: c) Personal income tax
Explanation: A progressive tax increases with income, hence taxing higher income groups more.

3. In India, bond yield inversion refers to a situation where:

a) Short-term interest rates fall below long-term rates
b) Long-term bonds give lower returns than short-term bonds
c) Repo rate is higher than reverse repo
d) GDP growth is higher than inflation

✅ Answer: b) Long-term bonds give lower returns than short-term bonds
Explanation: This signals negative investor sentiment or expectations of a recession.

4. Which of the following is not a component of the capital account in the Balance of Payments?

a) FDI
b) ECB
c) Portfolio investment
d) Invisible exports

✅ Answer: d) Invisible exports
Explanation: Invisible exports (services) are part of the current account, not capital account.

5. The term ‘stagflation’ refers to:

a) High inflation with high growth
b) Low inflation with low unemployment
c) High inflation and high unemployment
d) Recession with deflation

✅ Answer: c) High inflation and high unemployment
Explanation: Stagflation is a paradoxical situation where the economy faces stagnant growth and rising prices.

🌿 Botany

1. Which plant hormone promotes seed dormancy?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Ethylene

✅ Answer: c) Abscisic acid
Explanation: ABA induces dormancy and inhibits germination, helping seeds survive in unfavorable conditions.

2. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because:

a) They store more water
b) They have higher chlorophyll
c) They prevent photorespiration
d) They have more mitochondria

✅ Answer: c) They prevent photorespiration
Explanation: C4 plants spatially separate CO₂ fixation, reducing losses due to photorespiration, especially in hot, dry climates.

3. Mycorrhizae help plants in:

a) Water loss prevention
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Phosphorus absorption
d) Leaf expansion

✅ Answer: c) Phosphorus absorption
Explanation: Mycorrhizal fungi enhance phosphorus uptake, increasing plant growth in nutrient-poor soils.

4. In dicot roots, vascular bundles are:

a) Conjoint, collateral
b) Scattered
c) Radial and exarch
d) Concentric

✅ Answer: c) Radial and exarch
Explanation: In dicot roots, xylem and phloem are arranged separately on different radii, with xylem developing from the outside (exarch).

5. Which of the following is a non-endospermic seed?

a) Wheat
b) Castor
c) Gram
d) Maize

✅ Answer: c) Gram
Explanation: In gram, the endosperm is absorbed during development, making it a non-endospermic seed.

🐾 Zoology

1. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

a) Cartilage
b) Blood
c) Tendon
d) Skin

✅ Answer: d) Skin
Explanation: Skin is an organ made up of epithelial, connective, and other tissues. It is not solely connective.

2. Which hormone is not secreted by the anterior pituitary?

a) FSH
b) LH
c) Oxytocin
d) Prolactin

✅ Answer: c) Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary, not the anterior.

3. Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation?

a) Evolution of Homo sapiens
b) Evolution of Darwin’s finches
c) Development of insect wings
d) Evolution of horse limbs

✅ Answer: b) Evolution of Darwin’s finches
Explanation: Finches on the Galapagos Islands evolved different beak types from a common ancestor due to environmental adaptation.

4. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin D

✅ Answer: c) Vitamin A
Explanation: Vitamin A is essential for the synthesis of rhodopsin, crucial for vision in low light.

5. Which is a characteristic of mammals only?

a) Three-chambered heart
b) Gills during embryonic development
c) External fertilization
d) Mammary glands

✅ Answer: d) Mammary glands
Explanation: Mammals are uniquely defined by the presence of mammary glands for nurturing their young.

🔬 Physics

1. Which of the following phenomena confirms the wave nature of electrons?

a) Compton effect
b) Zeeman effect
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Electron diffraction

✅ Answer: d) Electron diffraction
Explanation: Diffraction is a wave property; electron diffraction confirms electrons have wave nature.

2. The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant (h) is:

a) [ML²T⁻²]
b) [MLT⁻¹]
c) [ML²T⁻¹]
d) [MLT⁻²]

✅ Answer: c) [ML²T⁻¹]
Explanation: Planck’s constant relates energy (ML²T⁻²) and frequency (T⁻¹), resulting in [ML²T⁻¹].

3. A transformer works on:

a) DC supply
b) Magnetic repulsion
c) Mutual induction
d) Electric induction

✅ Answer: c) Mutual induction
Explanation: A transformer uses mutual induction between coils to change voltage levels in AC circuits.

4. What is the escape velocity from Earth?

a) 7.9 km/s
b) 9.8 km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 12.6 km/s

✅ Answer: c) 11.2 km/s
Explanation: The escape velocity is the speed required to overcome Earth’s gravity without propulsion—approximately 11.2 km/s.

5. Which particle has the least mass?

a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) Alpha particle

✅ Answer: c) Electron
Explanation: Electron has a mass nearly 1/1836 that of a proton.

🧪 Chemistry

1. Which compound is most acidic?

a) Ethanol
b) Acetic acid
c) Phenol
d) Water

✅ Answer: b) Acetic acid
Explanation: Due to its carboxylic group, acetic acid is a stronger acid than phenol or ethanol.

2. Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

✅ Answer: b) Hydrogen
Explanation: Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂↑

3. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte?

a) NaCl
b) HCl
c) Glucose
d) NH₄OH

✅ Answer: c) Glucose
Explanation: Glucose does not dissociate into ions in water; hence, it cannot conduct electricity.

4. The correct order of atomic size is:

a) O > N > F
b) F > O > N
c) N > O > F
d) O > F > N

✅ Answer: c) N > O > F
Explanation: Across a period, atomic size decreases with increasing nuclear charge.

5. Which metal does not react with cold water but reacts with steam?

a) Potassium
b) Calcium
c) Magnesium
d) Iron

✅ Answer: d) Iron
Explanation: Iron reacts with steam to form Fe₃O₄ and H₂, but not with cold water.

📰 Current Affairs (Past 6 Months) (as of April 2025)

1. Who was appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner in March 2025?

a) Rajiv Kumar
b) Gyanesh Kumar
c) Sushil Chandra
d) Arun Goel

✅ Answer: b) Gyanesh Kumar
Explanation: He was appointed following Rajiv Kumar’s retirement.

2. India recently signed a historic trade agreement with which grouping in 2025?

a) SAARC
b) GCC
c) EFTA
d) QUAD

✅ Answer: c) EFTA
Explanation: India signed a major FTA with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for investment and market access.

3. Which Indian city hosted the Women's T20 World Cup 2024 Final?

a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
c) Ahmedabad
d) Chennai

✅ Answer: c) Ahmedabad
Explanation: The Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad hosted the final.

4. The RBI launched a pilot project in March 2025 to integrate:

a) UPI and blockchain
b) CBDC and international remittances
c) Bharat BillPay and NEFT
d) Aadhaar and UPI

✅ Answer: b) CBDC and international remittances
Explanation: RBI began testing cross-border CBDC transactions with select countries.

5. India’s first indigenous mRNA vaccine was launched for which disease?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Dengue
c) COVID-19
d) Malaria

✅ Answer: d) Malaria
Explanation: India launched its first mRNA-based malaria vaccine candidate in early 2025.

Technological determinism posits that technological development shapes society’s structure and cultural values. It assumes a unidirectional causality where innovation independently propels social change, often sidelining the human agency that adapts and interprets these innovations. However, critics argue this perspective is reductive and overlooks the dialectical relationship between technology and society. For instance, the advent of the printing press undoubtedly catalyzed mass literacy and the dissemination of ideas, but it was contingent upon social receptivity and institutional support. Technological artifacts do not operate in a vacuum—they are embedded within sociopolitical and economic matrices that influence their adoption and evolution.

The emergence of artificial intelligence (AI) further complicates the deterministic narrative. While AI's proliferation affects labor markets, ethics, and governance, it is also molded by public policy, societal values, and global disparities in access. Technological determinism, in this context, risks oversimplifying complex feedback loops into linear causality. The notion that society passively absorbs technology undermines the recursive influence of collective agency, regulation, and resistance.

Thus, a more nuanced perspective—technological constructivism—has gained traction, emphasizing the co-constructive nature of technological and social progress. This framework acknowledges the reciprocal shaping forces, where society and technology continuously influence each other in dynamic and sometimes unpredictable ways.

❓MCQs Based on the Passage

1. What is the central criticism of technological determinism presented in the passage?
A) It fails to predict future technological trends.
B) It ignores the role of societal forces in shaping technology.
C) It overemphasizes economic factors.
D) It promotes mass literacy through outdated means.

✅ Answer: B
Explanation: The passage critiques technological determinism for overlooking how societal structures, human agency, and policy influence technology's development and integration.

2. Which historical example is used to illustrate the limitations of technological determinism?
A) The invention of the steam engine
B) The emergence of artificial intelligence
C) The rise of the internet
D) The invention of the printing press

✅ Answer: D
Explanation: The passage uses the printing press to show that while it spurred literacy, its impact depended on social and institutional support—highlighting the role of non-technological factors.

3. How does the author characterize technological constructivism?
A) As a framework that predicts technological innovations
B) As a linear model emphasizing economic causality
C) As a reciprocal relationship between society and technology
D) As a method for resisting unethical technologies

✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Technological constructivism is presented as a nuanced approach that recognizes how technology and society shape each other in a dynamic, two-way process.

Comprehension Passage (Advanced Level)

In recent decades, the concept of sustainable development has transcended academic discourse and permeated policymaking, yet its practical realization remains riddled with paradoxes. The principle emphasizes balancing economic growth with environmental preservation and social equity, but global trends suggest a persistent skew in favor of profit-centric models. Nations, particularly developing ones, often justify ecologically detrimental practices as necessary evils to spur industrialization and alleviate poverty. However, such arguments rarely account for long-term ecological degradation, which, ironically, disproportionately affects the very populations these practices aim to uplift.

The discourse is further complicated by geopolitical dynamics. Developed countries, historically responsible for a substantial share of greenhouse emissions, now advocate stringent environmental norms, often overlooking the developmental aspirations of the Global South. This hypocrisy exacerbates mistrust and stalls collective action. Moreover, international frameworks, though ambitious, often lack enforceability and are marred by tokenism.

True sustainability requires a paradigm shift—not merely policy adjustments but a transformation in societal values. It necessitates decoupling human progress from relentless consumption and redefining prosperity in qualitative rather than quantitative terms. Until this occurs, the rhetoric of sustainability risks remaining a façade—appeasing global conscience while perpetuating systemic exploitation.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the main paradox presented in the passage?
A. Developed nations suffer more from ecological damage.
B. Economic growth always leads to social equity.
C. Sustainable development is discussed widely but poorly implemented.
D. Environmental laws are universally enforced.

Answer: C
Explanation: The passage highlights how sustainable development is frequently discussed but not truly realized in practice.

2. Why does the author criticize developed countries?
A. They fund projects in the Global South.
B. They reject environmental treaties.
C. They enforce fair climate regulations.
D. They promote norms without acknowledging their past emissions.

Answer: D
Explanation: The passage criticizes developed countries for ignoring their historical emissions while imposing norms on developing nations.

3. What does the author suggest is essential for real sustainability?
A. Rapid industrialization
B. Reduction in population
C. A shift in societal values
D. Technological innovation only

Answer: C
Explanation: The author emphasizes a deep change in values, moving away from material consumption toward qualitative growth.

1. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to: "Obfuscate"

A. Clarify
B. Illuminate
C. Confuse
D. Reveal

Answer: C. Confuse
Explanation:
"Obfuscate" means to deliberately make something unclear or difficult to understand; hence, "confuse" is the closest synonym.

2. Choose the synonym of: "Pernicious"

A. Harmless
B. Beneficial
C. Deadly
D. Innocent

Answer: C. Deadly
Explanation:
"Pernicious" refers to something that is harmful or fatal in a subtle or gradual way.

3. Choose the synonym of: "Recalcitrant"

A. Obedient
B. Compliant
C. Uncooperative
D. Submissive

Answer: C. Uncooperative
Explanation:
"Recalcitrant" describes someone who resists authority or control—hence, "uncooperative" fits best.

4. Choose the word closest in meaning to: "Ephemeral"

A. Lasting
B. Permanent
C. Temporary
D. Infinite

Answer: C. Temporary
Explanation:
"Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short time—so "temporary" is the correct synonym.

5. Choose the synonym of: "Impetuous"

A. Cautious
B. Rash
C. Thoughtful
D. Hesitant

Answer: B. Rash
Explanation:
"Impetuous" refers to someone acting without thought—"rash" carries the same idea of reckless haste.

1. Choose the antonym of: "Ubiquitous"

A. Rare
B. Present
C. Universal
D. Pervasive

Answer: A. Rare
Explanation:
"Ubiquitous" means present everywhere or widespread. Its opposite is something that is rarely found or uncommon—hence, "rare."

2. Choose the antonym of: "Munificent"

A. Generous
B. Lavish
C. Stingy
D. Wealthy

Answer: C. Stingy
Explanation:
"Munificent" refers to someone who is very generous, especially with money. "Stingy" is its antonym, meaning miserly or unwilling to give.

3. Choose the antonym of: "Reverence"

A. Veneration
B. Disrespect
C. Worship
D. Devotion

Answer: B. Disrespect
Explanation:
"Reverence" means deep respect or admiration. "Disrespect" is its direct opposite.

4. Choose the antonym of: "Prolific"

A. Fruitful
B. Barren
C. Creative
D. Fertile

Answer: B. Barren
Explanation:
"Prolific" refers to producing abundantly (e.g., ideas, offspring, works). The opposite is "barren," meaning unproductive or infertile.

5. Choose the antonym of: "Belligerent"

A. Aggressive
B. Hostile
C. Peaceful
D. Combative

Answer: C. Peaceful
Explanation:
"Belligerent" means aggressive or warlike. The opposite would be calm and non-confrontational—hence, "peaceful."

**1. She said, "I had been working on the project since morning."

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. She said that she was working on the project since morning.
B. She said that she had worked on the project since morning.
C. She said that she had been working on the project since morning.
D. She said that she had been working on the project from morning.

Answer: C. She said that she had been working on the project since morning.
Explanation:
Past perfect continuous tense remains unchanged in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past.

**2. He said to me, "Do you know the way to the station?"

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. He asked me did I know the way to the station.
B. He asked me whether I knew the way to the station.
C. He told me if I know the way to the station.
D. He asked me that did I know the way to the station.

Answer: B. He asked me whether I knew the way to the station.
Explanation:
Yes/No questions in reported speech use "if" or "whether" + subject + verb.

**3. "Don’t touch the wires," the electrician warned us.

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. The electrician warned us not to touch the wires.
B. The electrician warned us to not touch the wires.
C. The electrician warned us don’t touch the wires.
D. The electrician said us not to touch the wires.

Answer: A. The electrician warned us not to touch the wires.
Explanation:
Imperatives are reported using "to" + verb, and negative imperatives use "not to" + verb.

**4. He said, "Alas! I failed the exam."

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. He said with joy that he had failed the exam.
B. He exclaimed with grief that he had failed the exam.
C. He exclaimed that he has failed the exam.
D. He exclaimed with sorrow that he failed the exam.

Answer: B. He exclaimed with grief that he had failed the exam.
Explanation:
"Alas!" is an exclamation of sorrow, so use "exclaimed with grief" and change the tense appropriately.

**5. She said, "Will you come to the party?"

Choose the correct indirect narration.**
A. She asked me will I come to the party.
B. She asked me whether I will come to the party.
C. She asked me whether I would come to the party.
D. She told me whether I would come to the party.

Answer: C. She asked me whether I would come to the party.
Explanation:
"Will" becomes "would" in indirect speech when the reporting verb is in the past. Use "asked" for interrogative sentences.

✅ A. Voice Change (Active–Passive Voice) – 5 MCQs

1. The jury found him guilty of theft.

Choose the correct passive voice:
A. He was found guilty of theft by the jury.
B. He is found guilty of theft by the jury.
C. He has been found guilty of theft by the jury.
D. He had found guilty of theft by the jury.

Answer: A. He was found guilty of theft by the jury.
Explanation:
Past simple in active changes to past simple in passive. Structure: was/were + past participle.

2. They will have completed the bridge by next year.

A. The bridge will have completed by them by next year.
B. The bridge would have been completed by them by next year.
C. The bridge will have been completed by them by next year.
D. The bridge will be completed by them by next year.

Answer: C. The bridge will have been completed by them by next year.
Explanation:
Future perfect tense in passive: will have been + past participle.

3. Someone is painting the door.

A. The door is painted.
B. The door has been painting.
C. The door is being painted.
D. The door is being paint.

Answer: C. The door is being painted.
Explanation:
Present continuous passive = is/are being + past participle.

4. We must respect the national flag.

A. The national flag must be respected.
B. The national flag must respected.
C. The national flag must be respect.
D. The national flag is respected.

Answer: A. The national flag must be respected.
Explanation:
Modal + be + past participle = Passive form of modals.

5. Did she complete the assignment?

A. Was the assignment completed by her?
B. Is the assignment completed by her?
C. Has the assignment been completed by her?
D. Had the assignment been completed by her?

Answer: A. Was the assignment completed by her?
Explanation:
Simple past question in passive = Was/Were + past participle.

✅ B. Jumbled Sentences – 5 MCQs

Choose the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

**1. P: To work efficiently

Q: Is essential
R: In any organization
S: Team spirit**
A. SRQP
B. QPSR
C. SPRQ
D. SQRP

Answer: A. SRQP
Explanation:
S (Team spirit) → R (in any organization) → Q (is essential) → P (to work efficiently)

**2. P: She lost her way

Q: She was new to the city
R: Because
S: And it was late at night**
A. QSRP
B. RPQS
C. RQPS
D. QRPS

Answer: C. RQPS
Explanation:
R (Because) → Q (she was new...) → P (She lost her way) → S (and it was late...)

3.

Sentence fragments:

• P: Is no longer a luxury
  Q: In the modern world
  R: But a necessity
  S: Computer education
  
  

Given Answer: A. SRPQ
Explanation Provided:
S (Subject) → R (but a necessity) → P (is no longer a luxury) → Q (in the modern world)

✅ Evaluation:

• The phrase "Computer education is no longer a luxury but a necessity in the modern world." makes grammatical and logical sense.

• SRPQ correctly forms this structure.
  
  

✅ Conclusion: Correct. No changes needed.

4. Sentence fragments:

• P: When he reached the station

• Q: To his disappointment

• R: He found that the train

• S: Had already left
  
  

Given Answer: A. PQRS
Claimed Chronological sequence: P → Q → R → S

🔍 Evaluation:

Let’s try to put that together:

• When he reached the station, to his disappointment, he found that the train had already left.
  This flows correctly.
  
  

✅ Conclusion: Correct. No changes needed.

5.

Sentence fragments:

• P: The teacher asked

• Q: If he had done his homework

• R: The boy replied

• S: That he had forgotten
  
  

Given Answer: A. PRSQ
Explanation says: P → R → S → Q

❌ Evaluation:

Let’s try PRSQ:

• The teacher asked. The boy replied that he had forgotten if he had done his homework.
  — This doesn’t sound right.
  
  

Let’s try PQRS:

• The teacher asked if he had done his homework. The boy replied that he had forgotten.
  — This sounds fluent and makes logical sense.
  
  

✅ Correct Order Should Be: PQRS

📌 Correct Answer: B. PQRS

✅ Final Corrections:

Q. No.

Given Answer

Corrected Answer

Status

3

A. SRPQ

A. SRPQ

✅ Correct

4

A. PQRS

A. PQRS

✅ Correct

5

A. PRSQ

B. PQRS

❌ Incorrect → Corrected

✅ Idioms and Phrases – 5 MCQs

1. Idiom: "To throw down the gauntlet"

What does it mean?

A. To accept defeat
B. To fight with someone
C. To issue a challenge
D. To make peace

Answer: C. To issue a challenge
Explanation:
This idiom originates from medieval times when knights threw down their gauntlets (gloves) to challenge others to a duel. It means to challenge someone boldly.

2. Idiom: "To eat humble pie"

What does it mean?

A. To be modest after being proven wrong
B. To enjoy food
C. To criticize someone
D. To remain hungry

Answer: A. To be modest after being proven wrong
Explanation:
“To eat humble pie” means to admit your mistake and apologize with humility.

3. Idiom: "To burn the candle at both ends"

What does it mean?

A. To waste money
B. To work early in the morning and late at night
C. To light both sides of a candle
D. To enjoy luxuries

Answer: B. To work early in the morning and late at night
Explanation:
This idiom means overworking or using one’s energy or resources too quickly, usually by working long hours.

4. Idiom: "To bell the cat"

What does it mean?

A. To take a risk for the benefit of others
B. To talk unnecessarily
C. To alert everyone of danger
D. To follow the leader blindly

Answer: A. To take a risk for the benefit of others
Explanation:
It refers to doing a dangerous or difficult task that benefits a group, like putting a bell on a cat so mice can hear it coming.

5. Idiom: "A storm in a teacup"

What does it mean?

A. A dangerous situation
B. A major issue that affects all
C. A big fuss over a small matter
D. A very small problem solved easily

Answer: C. A big fuss over a small matter
Explanation:
This idiom means getting overly upset or agitated about something minor or trivial.

✅ Vedic Era – 5 Advanced MCQs

1. Which of the following Rigvedic rivers was referred to as the "Nadītamā" (the best of rivers)?

A. Sarasvati
B. Sindhu
C. Yamuna
D. Ganga

Answer: A. Sarasvati
Explanation:
In the Rigveda, Sarasvati is praised as the Nadītamā, meaning the most important or best river. It is mentioned more frequently than even the Indus (Sindhu).

2. In the Vedic period, the term 'Krishna Ayas' referred to:

A. Black cotton soil
B. Black iron or wrought iron
C. Dark-skinned people
D. A sacred symbol

Answer: B. Black iron or wrought iron
Explanation:
‘Krishna Ayas’ in Vedic literature is believed to mean black metal, which is interpreted as iron, while ‘Shyama Ayas’ may also refer to copper or bronze.

3. Which of the following Vedic texts contains references to agriculture, ploughing, and irrigation?

A. Aitareya Brahmana
B. Taittiriya Samhita
C. Rigveda
D. Atharvaveda

Answer: D. Atharvaveda
Explanation:
The Atharvaveda contains practical knowledge, including references to agriculture, such as ploughing, seeds, and pest control.

4. The term ‘Rajan’ in the early Vedic polity primarily denoted:

A. An emperor
B. A tribal chieftain
C. A spiritual leader
D. A tax collector

Answer: B. A tribal chieftain
Explanation:
In the early Vedic period, the Rajan was the head of a tribe, not a monarch in the later sense. His power was limited by assemblies like sabha and samiti.

5. The Purushasukta hymn of the Rigveda is significant because it:

A. Describes warfare techniques
B. Refers to the migration of Aryans
C. Mentions the origin of the four varnas
D. Advocates monotheism

Answer: C. Mentions the origin of the four varnas
Explanation:
The Purushasukta (Rigveda X.90) describes how Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra emerged from different parts of Purusha's body—forming the basis of the varna system.

✅ Ancient Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following archaeological sites is associated with both the Harappan and later Vedic cultures?

A. Kalibangan
B. Mehrgarh
C. Hastinapur
D. Bhagwanpura

Answer: D. Bhagwanpura
Explanation:
Bhagwanpura (Haryana) is a unique site showing continuity from Late Harappan to Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture, often linked with the Vedic period.

2. The famous Gayatri Mantra is found in which Mandala of the Rigveda?

A. First Mandala
B. Third Mandala
C. Fifth Mandala
D. Ninth Mandala

Answer: B. Third Mandala
Explanation:
The Gayatri Mantra is addressed to Savitr and appears in Mandala 3, Hymn 62, Verse 10 of the Rigveda.

3. Who among the following was the first Indian ruler to organize a regular army and set up a standing army system?

A. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Ashoka
C. Harshavardhana
D. Samudragupta

Answer: A. Chandragupta Maurya
Explanation:
Chandragupta Maurya, with the help of Kautilya (Chanakya), organized a large standing army, which was described by Megasthenes in Indica.

4. In which language was the Ashokan inscription at Kandahar written?

A. Sanskrit and Prakrit
B. Aramaic and Greek
C. Pali and Brahmi
D. Prakrit and Kharosthi

Answer: B. Aramaic and Greek
Explanation:
The Kandahar inscription reflects Ashoka’s bilingual message to the Greek-speaking and Aramaic-speaking people of Afghanistan.

5. The concept of Trimurti in ancient Indian religious texts refers to:

A. Three sacred rivers
B. Three kings of the solar dynasty
C. Three Vedas
D. Trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva

Answer: D. Trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva
Explanation:
The Trimurti concept evolved during the Gupta period—symbolizing the roles of creation (Brahma), preservation (Vishnu), and destruction (Shiva).

✅ Modern Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Who among the following was associated with the journal “Indian Sociologist” which advocated Indian independence from British rule?

A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Shyamji Krishna Varma
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: B. Shyamji Krishna Varma
Explanation:
Shyamji Krishna Varma founded the India House in London and published the journal “The Indian Sociologist” to inspire revolution and demand complete independence.

2. The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:

A. Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin
B. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Muhammad Ali Jinnah
D. Subhas Chandra Bose and C. Rajagopalachari

Answer: B. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation:
The Poona Pact was signed to resolve the dispute over separate electorates for Depressed Classes, replacing it with reserved seats within the general electorate.

3. The term “Drain of Wealth” was first used by:

A. Mahadev Govind Ranade
B. R.C. Dutt
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: C. Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji’s book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” introduced the theory of Drain of Wealth, highlighting economic exploitation by the British.

4. Which revolutionary leader was the founder of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)?

A. Bhagat Singh
B. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
C. Ram Prasad Bismil
D. Chandrashekhar Azad

Answer: C. Ram Prasad Bismil
Explanation:
The HSRA was a reorganization of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), and Ram Prasad Bismil was its original founder in 1924.

5. Who called the 1857 Revolt “neither first, nor national, nor a war of independence”?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sir John Seeley
C. V.D. Savarkar
D. R.C. Majumdar

Answer: D. R.C. Majumdar
Explanation:
Historian R.C. Majumdar disagreed with the nationalist interpretation of 1857 as a war of independence, calling it limited in scope and leadership.

✅ Medieval Indian History – 5 MCQs with Answers

1. Who among the following Delhi Sultans introduced the practice of Sijda and Paibos (prostration and kissing the feet)?

A. Alauddin Khalji
B. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
C. Balban
D. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Answer: C. Balban
Explanation:
Ghiyasuddin Balban introduced Sijda and Paibos to enhance the majesty of the monarchy, drawing inspiration from Persian court traditions and asserting divine kingship.

2. The battle of Talikota in 1565 led to the downfall of which of the following empires?

A. Bahmani Sultanate
B. Vijayanagara Empire
C. Mughal Empire
D. Maratha Confederacy

Answer: B. Vijayanagara Empire
Explanation:
The Battle of Talikota (1565) was fought between the Deccan Sultanates and the Vijayanagara Empire, resulting in the collapse of Vijayanagara power under Rama Raya.

3. Which Mughal emperor issued the Mazhar (Declaration of Faith), asserting his authority over Islamic scholars?

A. Humayun
B. Jahangir
C. Shah Jahan
D. Akbar

Answer: D. Akbar
Explanation:
In 1579, Akbar issued the Mazhar, declaring himself the final arbiter in religious matters, thus reducing the influence of the Ulema and establishing his own syncretic belief system (Din-i Ilahi).

4. Who among the following historians wrote Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, a key source for the Delhi Sultanate?

A. Ziauddin Barani
B. Amir Khusrau
C. Ibn Battuta
D. Minhaj-i-Siraj

Answer: A. Ziauddin Barani
Explanation:
Barani authored Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, a major historical work detailing events during the reigns of rulers like Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

5. The Mansabdari system was introduced by which Mughal ruler to organize the military and bureaucracy?

A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb

Answer: B. Akbar
Explanation:
Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system, classifying officials into ranks (mansabs) and regulating military-civil administration, a crucial reform in centralization.

✅ Geography – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Himalayan ranges from south to north?

A. Zanskar – Himadri – Shiwalik – Himachal
B. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Himadri
C. Shiwalik – Himachal – Himadri – Zanskar
D. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Karakoram

Answer: D. Shiwalik – Himachal – Zanskar – Karakoram
Explanation:
From south to north, the Himalayan ranges follow this sequence: Shiwalik (outer) → Himachal (lesser) → Zanskar → Karakoram (Trans-Himalaya).

2. The phenomenon of “Western Disturbances” is associated with which of the following?

A. Cyclonic storms originating over the Bay of Bengal
B. Jet streams bringing rainfall to the Western Ghats
C. Westerly winds causing winter rainfall in North India
D. Monsoon reversal during retreat

Answer: C. Westerly winds causing winter rainfall in North India
Explanation:
Western Disturbances are extra-tropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region, bringing winter rain and snow to northwestern India.

3. The “Horse Latitudes” are located approximately at which of the following latitudes?

A. Equator (0°)
B. 10°–20° North and South
C. 30° North and South
D. 50° North and South

Answer: C. 30° North and South
Explanation:
Horse Latitudes are high-pressure zones located at about 30° N and 30° S, characterized by calm winds and little precipitation.

4. Which of the following rivers does not originate from the Amarkantak Plateau?

A. Narmada
B. Son
C. Mahanadi
D. Johilla

Answer: C. Mahanadi
Explanation:
While Narmada, Son, and Johilla originate from the Amarkantak Plateau, the Mahanadi originates from the Sihawa hills of Chhattisgarh.

5. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in a temperate alpine zone?

A. Nanda Devi National Park
B. Dachigam National Park
C. Valley of Flowers National Park
D. Namdapha National Park

Answer: A. Nanda Devi National Park
Explanation:
Located in Uttarakhand, Nanda Devi National Park lies in the temperate alpine zone, with rugged terrain, glacial basins, and high elevation flora and fauna.

🌊 Oceanography – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. The zone of the ocean where light does not penetrate and photosynthesis is absent is called:

A. Photic zone
B. Aphotic zone
C. Littoral zone
D. Neritic zone

Answer: B. Aphotic zone
Explanation:
The Aphotic zone lies below the photic (sunlit) zone and is devoid of sunlight, making photosynthesis impossible.

2. The ‘Thermohaline circulation’ in oceans is primarily driven by:

A. Surface winds
B. Tidal force
C. Variations in salinity and temperature
D. Ocean currents caused by Earth's rotation

Answer: C. Variations in salinity and temperature
Explanation:
Thermohaline circulation (also called the Global Conveyor Belt) is driven by differences in water density, which depend on temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline).

3. Which of the following is a cold ocean current?

A. Kuroshio
B. Agulhas
C. Benguela
D. Brazilian

Answer: C. Benguela
Explanation:
The Benguela Current is a cold current flowing northward along the southwestern coast of Africa, influencing the Namib Desert’s arid climate.

4. What is the primary reason for high salinity in the Red Sea?

A. High precipitation and river inflow
B. Low evaporation rate
C. High evaporation and low freshwater inflow
D. Connection to the Atlantic Ocean

Answer: C. High evaporation and low freshwater inflow
Explanation:
The Red Sea has extremely high salinity due to high evaporation, scarce rainfall, and almost no river inflow.

5. The greatest ocean depth recorded—Mariana Trench—is located in which ocean?

A. Indian Ocean
B. Arctic Ocean
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Atlantic Ocean

Answer: C. Pacific Ocean
Explanation:
The Mariana Trench, specifically Challenger Deep, is the deepest known point on Earth’s seafloor and lies in the western Pacific Ocean.

📜 Indian Constitution – Articles (5 Advanced MCQs)

1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the “Doctrine of Double Jeopardy”?

A. Article 21
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 22
D. Article 19(1)(a)

Answer: B. Article 20(2)
Explanation:
Article 20(2) states that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, which is the principle of Double Jeopardy.

2. Which Article empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment?

A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 161
D. Article 356

Answer: A. Article 72
Explanation:
Article 72 gives the President of India the power to grant pardon and other forms of clemency for offenses under Union law, military court decisions, and death sentences.

3. Which Article is related to the establishment of the Inter-State Council?

A. Article 263
B. Article 280
C. Article 256
D. Article 262

Answer: A. Article 263
Explanation:
Article 263 provides for the Inter-State Council, which is established to facilitate coordination between states and the Union.

4. Under which Article can the Parliament restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency?

A. Article 19
B. Article 33
C. Article 352
D. Article 359

Answer: D. Article 359
Explanation:
Article 359 allows the President to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) during a National Emergency.

5. Which of the following Articles provides for the Finance Commission?

A. Article 266
B. Article 280
C. Article 265
D. Article 275

Answer: B. Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, which recommends distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.

🇮🇳 Indian Polity – 5 Difficult MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following constitutional amendments curtailed the power of judicial review and declared certain laws beyond the scrutiny of the courts?

A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment

Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often called the “Mini Constitution”, curtailed judicial review, expanded Parliament’s power, and inserted Article 368(4) & (5)—declaring constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny (later struck down in Minerva Mills case).

2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian federal system?

A. Dual citizenship
B. Written Constitution
C. Independent Judiciary
D. Distribution of powers

Answer: A. Dual citizenship
Explanation:
India has a single citizenship, unlike the USA, which provides dual citizenship (national and state). The rest are features of Indian federalism.

3. Under which Article can the Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List in the national interest?

A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 248

Answer: A. Article 249
Explanation:
According to Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) enabling Parliament to legislate on a State subject in national interest.

4. The concept of “Equal Protection of Laws” is borrowed from which country's constitution?

A. British Constitution
B. Irish Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution

Answer: C. American Constitution
Explanation:
The phrase “Equal Protection of Laws” in Article 14 is borrowed from the 14th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.

5. Who among the following can initiate a motion for the removal of the Vice-President of India?

A. Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Supreme Court

Answer: C. Rajya Sabha
Explanation:
Article 67(b) says that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

📊 Indian Economy – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

**1. The term "stagflation" refers to which of the following?

A. High inflation with low unemployment
B. Low inflation with high economic growth
C. High inflation with high unemployment and stagnant growth
D. Deflation with high growth

Answer: C. High inflation with high unemployment and stagnant growth
Explanation:
Stagflation is an economic situation where the economy experiences stagnation (no growth), high inflation, and high unemployment simultaneously. It is a rare and challenging scenario for policymakers.

2. The concept of “Inclusive Growth” was explicitly emphasized in which Five-Year Plan for the first time?

A. 9th Five-Year Plan
B. 10th Five-Year Plan
C. 11th Five-Year Plan
D. 12th Five-Year Plan

Answer: C. 11th Five-Year Plan
Explanation:
The 11th Plan (2007–2012), under the theme “Faster and More Inclusive Growth,” was the first to explicitly emphasize inclusive development as a goal, ensuring benefits reach marginalized sections.

3. Which of the following bodies decides the Base Year of the GDP calculation in India?

A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Explanation:
The CSO (now merged into NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for fixing the base year, revising GDP series, and national accounting.

4. What does ‘Crowding Out Effect’ refer to in macroeconomics?

A. Government borrowing reduces private investment
B. FDI reduces domestic investment
C. Subsidies increase fiscal deficit
D. Government investment increases private profits

Answer: A. Government borrowing reduces private investment
Explanation:
The Crowding Out Effect occurs when heavy government borrowing drives up interest rates, making credit costlier for the private sector, hence reducing private investment.

**5. In the context of fiscal policy, what is ‘Primary Deficit’?

A. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
B. Total deficit minus subsidies
C. Budget deficit minus grants
D. Revenue deficit minus tax revenue

Answer: A. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
Explanation:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
It indicates the current borrowing requirements of the government, excluding interest obligations on past debt.

🏦 Banking & RBI – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following instruments is NOT used by the RBI for quantitative credit control?

A. Bank Rate
B. Open Market Operations
C. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
D. Moral Suasion

Answer: D. Moral Suasion
Explanation:
Moral Suasion is a qualitative instrument, not quantitative. It refers to the persuasive tactics used by the RBI to influence banks' lending behavior without legal enforcement.

2. Which committee recommended the introduction of the Base Rate system in India to replace the Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)?

A. Bimal Jalan Committee
B. S.S. Tarapore Committee
C. C. Rangarajan Committee
D. Deepak Mohanty Committee

Answer: D. Deepak Mohanty Committee
Explanation:
The Deepak Mohanty Committee (2009) recommended the Base Rate system, implemented in 2010, to enhance transparency in lending rates and improve monetary policy transmission.

3. Which of the following is a liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) instrument used by RBI to absorb or inject liquidity on a short-term basis?

A. Bank Rate
B. Repo and Reverse Repo
C. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
D. SLR

Answer: B. Repo and Reverse Repo
Explanation:
Under LAF, Repo rate is used to inject liquidity, while Reverse Repo is used to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, both for short-term adjustments.

4. What is the current legal framework that governs the Reserve Bank of India?

A. The RBI Act, 1934
B. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. The Companies Act, 2013
D. The Indian Contract Act, 1872

Answer: A. The RBI Act, 1934
Explanation:
The RBI Act, 1934 provides the legal foundation for the establishment, structure, powers, and functions of the Reserve Bank of India.

5. Which among the following is NOT part of the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

A. Governor of RBI (Chairperson)
B. Deputy Governor of RBI in charge of monetary policy
C. Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
D. Three external members appointed by the Government

Answer: C. Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
Explanation:
The MPC consists of 6 members:

• 3 RBI officials: Governor (Chairperson), one Deputy Governor, and one officer nominated by the Central Board
  
  

• 3 external experts appointed by the Central Government
  The Secretary of Economic Affairs is not a member.

🌿 Botany – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

1. Which of the following plant hormones is responsible for apical dominance in plants?

A. Cytokinin
B. Ethylene
C. Auxin
D. Gibberellin

Answer: C. Auxin
Explanation:
Auxin (especially Indole-3-acetic acid or IAA) is responsible for apical dominance, where the main shoot suppresses the growth of lateral buds.

2. Kranz anatomy is characteristic of which type of plants?

A. C₃ plants
B. CAM plants
C. C₄ plants
D. Gymnosperms

Answer: C. C₄ plants
Explanation:
Kranz anatomy (a special leaf anatomy with bundle sheath cells) is found in C₄ plants, such as maize and sugarcane, allowing efficient carbon fixation in hot, dry environments.

3. Which of the following pigments is responsible for photo-protection in plants by dissipating excess light energy?

A. Chlorophyll a
B. Carotenoids
C. Phycocyanin
D. Xanthophyll

Answer: D. Xanthophyll
Explanation:
Xanthophylls are oxygenated carotenoids that protect plants by dissipating excess light energy and preventing photo-oxidative damage.

4. In which of the following plant tissues would you expect to find lignin in highest concentration?

A. Parenchyma
B. Collenchyma
C. Sclerenchyma
D. Phloem

Answer: C. Sclerenchyma
Explanation:
Sclerenchyma cells are dead, thick-walled, and heavily lignified, providing mechanical strength to plants.

5. The Casparian strip, found in plant roots, is chemically composed of:

A. Lignin and pectin
B. Suberin
C. Cellulose
D. Hemicellulose

Answer: B. Suberin
Explanation:
The Casparian strip is a waxy band of suberin found in the endodermis of roots, acting as a selective barrier to regulate water and nutrient flow into the vascular cylinder.

🧬 Zoology – 5 Advanced MCQs with Answers

**1. Which of the following animals exhibits a pseudocoelom?

A. Earthworm
B. Cockroach
C. Roundworm
D. Starfish