MCQs

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

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Q1 The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other

(i) pollen grains inside the anther

(ii) germinated pollen grains with two male gametes

(iii) seed inside the fruit

(iv) embryo sac inside the ovule

a. i only

b. i, ii and iii 

c. iii and iv

d. i and iv

Ans. d. i and iv

Q2 In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

a. insects or wind

b. water  currents only

c. wind and water 

d. insects and water

Ans. a. insects or wind

Q3 Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?

a. Tetrasporic with three sequential stage of divisions

b. Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions

c. monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

d. bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

Ans. b.Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions

Q4. What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

a. Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water

b. Flowers emerge above surface of water and pollination occurs by insects.

c. Flowers emerge above water surface, and pollen is carried by wind.

d. Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flower at surface of water

Ans. d. Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flower at surface of water

Explanation: - In Vallisneria, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water.  They are carried passively by water currents, some of them eventually reach the female flowers and the stigma.

Q5. In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?

a. wheat 

b. papaya 

c. castor

d. maize 

Ans.b. papaya

Q6. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 

a. -120 'C

b. -80 'C

c. -196 'C

d. -160 'C

Ans. c. -196'C

Explanation: - Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen at -196'C.  This is also known as cryopreservation.

Q7. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

a. Pollenkitt

b. Cellulosic intine

c. Oil content

d. Sporopollenin

Ans.d. Sporopollenin

Explanation: Exine of pollen grains is made up of highly resistant fatty substance called sporopollenin, which is not degraded by any enzyme.  It is not affected by high temperature, strong acid or strong alkali. Because of the sporopollenin, pollen grains are well preserved as microfossils.

Q8. Winged pollen grains are present in 

a. mustard

b. Cycas

c. mango

d. pinus

Ans. d.pinus

Explanation: Each pollen grain of Pinus has two wing like structures which enable it to float in air, as an adaptation for dispersal by wind.  Pollen grains of mustard, Cycas and mango are not winged.

Q9. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into an 

a. endosperm

b. embryo sac

c. embryo

d. ovule

Ans.b. embryo sac

Explanation: In angiosperms, the functional megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte.  It enlarges and undergoes three nuclear mitotic divisions to form embryo sac.

Q10 Attractants and rewards are required for

a. entomophily

b. hydrophily

c. cleistogamy

d. anemophily

Ans. a. entomophily

explanation: Entomophily is the most common type of zoophily where pollination takes place through the agency of insects.  Entomophilous flowers are brightly coloured and secrete nectar to attract visiting insects.  Anemophily (wind pollination) and hydrophily (water pollination) do not require attractants or rewards due to the involvement of abiotic pollinating agents.  Cleistogamy is self - pollination in closed flowers.

Q11.  Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by

a. bee

b. wind

c. bat

d. water

Ans. b.wind

explanation: single ovule in the ovary and flowers packed into inflorescence are characteristics of wind pollinated flowers.

Q12. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both

a. autogamy and geitonogamy

b. geitonogamy and xenogamy

c. cleistogamy and xenogamy

d. autogamy and xenogamy

Ans. a. autogamy and geitonogamy

explanation: Dioecious plants are those plants in which male flowers and female flowers are borne on different plants.  Therefore, they prevent both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Q.No.13 In majority of angiosperms

a. egg has a filiform apparatus

b. there are numerous antipodal cells

c. reduction division occurs in the megaspore

d. a small central cell is present in that embryo sac

Ans. c. reduction division occurs in the megaspore.


Q.No.1 Flowers are highly modified ___________

a. Root

b. Shoot

c.Stem

d.Leaves

Ans. b.Shoot

Q.No.2 A typical flower has ______ different kinds of whorl

a. two

b.three

c.four

d.five

Ans. c.four (calyx, corolla, androecium, gynoecium)

Q.No.3 Anther is typically

a.tetrasporangiate

b.bisporangiate

c.trisporangiate

d.monosporangiate

Ans. a.tetrasporangiate

Q.No.4 The functions of tapetum is to 

a.produce ubish bodies

b. produce pollen grains

c. provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains 

d. store and protect pollen grains

Ans. c.provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains

Q.No.5 Microsporogenesis occurs

a.on margin of flowers

b.inside the ovule

c.inside the anther

d.in essential floral organs

Ans. c.inside the anther

Q.No.6 Exine of pollen grains is formed of

a.callose

b.pecto-cellulose

c.ligno-cellulose

d.sporopollenin

Ans. d.sporopollenin

Q.No.7 One of the most resistant known biological material is 

a.lignin

b.hemicellulose

c.sporopollenin

d.lignocellulose

Ans. c.sporopollenin

Q.No.8 Pollen grains is liberated at

a.one celled stage

b.two celled stage

c.three celled stage

d.two or three celled stage

Ans. d.two or three celled stage

Q.No.9 Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at 

a. 70 *C

b.100 *C

c.-196*C

d.0*C

Ans. c. - 196 *C

Q10. Ovule is

a. megasporangium

b.megasporophyll

c.integumented megasporangium

d. rolled megasporophyll

Ans. a.megasporangium

Q11. Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous cushion called

a. nucellus

b. obturator

c. conducting tissue

d. placenta

Ans.. d. placenta

Q12 The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is 

a. chalaza

b. hilum

c. raphe

d. endothelium

Ans. b. hilum

Q13. Egg apparatus consists of 

a. egg cell and antipodal cells.

b. egg cell and central cell

c. egg cell and two synergids

d. egg cell and one synergids

Ans. c. egg cell and two synergids

Q14. The most common type of ovule is ----

a. orthotropous 

b. hemitropous

c. anatropous

d. campylotropous 

Ans. c. anatropous


Qp208 Ap458


Q1. The plant parts which consists of two generations one within the other

i. pollen grains inside the anther

ii. germinated pollen grain with two male gametes 

iii. seed inside the fruit

iv. embryo sac inside the ovule

a. i only

b. i, ii, iii 

c. iii & iv

d. i & iv

Ans. d. i & iv 

Q2 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of 

a. water

b. insects or wind

c. birds

d. bats

Ans. insects or wind

Q3. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without fertilisation. It is

a. apospory

b. apogamy

c. parthenocarpy

d. parthenogenesis

Ans. b.apogamy.

Explanation: - Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without fertilisation. This phenomenon is called apogamy. Development of sporophyte from gametophyte forming gamete is apogamy.  Such sporophyte is haploid in nature.

HAGA DISPO= haploid gametophyte, diploid sporophyte.

Q4. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is

a. apospory

b. apogamy

c. parthenogenesis

d. amphimixis

Ans. a. apospory

Explanation: Formation of gametophyte (plant) directly from sporophyte (plant) without meiosis and spore formation is apospory. The gametophyte thus has diploid number of chromosomes.  Such gametophyte may form viable gametes which fuse to form tetraploid sporophyte.  Apogamy is development of sporophyte directly from gametophytic tissue without fusion of gametes  Amphimixis is normal sexual reproduction.  Parthenogenesis is development of embryo from egg without fertilisation.  

Q5. Development of an organism from female gamete/ egg without involving fertilisation

a. adventive embryony

b. polyembryony

c. parthenocarpy

d. parthenogenesis

Ans. d. Parthenogenesis

Explanation: Development of an organism from female gamete/ egg without involving fertilisation is parthenogenesis and when a fruit is developed by this technique it is called parthenocarpy.

Q6. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to 

a. megasporangium

b. megasporophyll

c. megaspore mother cell

d. megaspore

Ans. a. megasporangium

Explanation: - The ovule of an angiosperm is equivalent to  integumented megasporangium.

Q16. Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies.

b. stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes.

c. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

d. exine of pollen grains is made of sporopollenin

Ans. c. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther is wrong.

Explanation: - Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of microsporangium that nourishes developing pollen grains. 

Q17. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil 

b. some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species

c. pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of the flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style

d. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/ nectar robbers.

Ans. c. 

Explanation: Pollen - pistil interaction is the group of events that occur from the time of pollen deposition over the stigma to the time of pollen tube entry into the ovule. It is a safety measure to ensure that illegitimate crossing does not occur.  Pollen grains of no. of plants may settle over a stigma. The pollens belonging to same species would germinate while other fail to do so, but the pollen tube of the compatible pollen will grow through the style to reach the ovule whereas growth of incompatible pollens will be arrested at stigmatic disc or sometimes in the beginning part of style. 

Human Reproduction

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Q.No.1 The _____ lead to vas deferens that ascends to the ____ and loops over the _____

a.prostate, stomach, urinary bladder

b. epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder

c. vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter

d. urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct, abdomen

Ans. a.epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder

Q.No.2 The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold of skin is called

a. glans penis

b.foreskin

c.hymen

d.Urethra meatus

Ans. b.foreskin

Q.No.3Which of the following is a transporting tube leading from the bladder to which brings urine outside the body via penis?

a.Ureter

b. Epididymis

c.Ejaculatory duct

d.Urethra meatus

Ans. d.Urethra meatus

Q.No.4 Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

a.epididymis to urethra b.vas deferens to epididymis c.rete testis to vas deferens d. testicular lobules to rete testis

Ans. c.rete testis to vas deferens

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Q.No.5 A sac shaped like an upside down pear with a thick lining and muscles in the pelvic area where a fertilised egg or zygote comes to grow into a baby is called _________

a.oviduct b.uterus c.vagina d.vulva

Ans. b.uterus

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Q.No.6 Which of the following is a finger like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening?

a.Clitoris b.Oviduct c.Ampulla d. Chorionic Villi

Ans. a.Clitoris

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Q.No.7 Which of the following produces sperms in spermatogenesis?

a.sertoli cells b.interstitial cells c.primary spermatocytes d.immature male germ cells

Ans. d.immature male germ cells

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Q.No.8 In the process of spermatogenesis, first maturation division is called ____

a.mitotic division b.reduction division c.amiotic division d.None

Ans. b.reduction division

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Q.No.9 Spermatids are transformed into sperm by a process called _______

a. spermiation b.implantation c.insemination d.spermiogenesis

Ans. d.Spermiogenesis

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Q.No.10 In humans, male germ cells differentiate into ________ at the end of first meiotic division

a.spermatid

b.spermatogonium

c.secondary spermatocyte

d.primary spermatocyte

Ans. c.secondary spermatocyte

Q11. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is 

a. urethra 

b. ureter

c. vas deferens

d. vasa efferentia

Ans.  a. urethra

Explanation: Urethra is the urinary duct which originates from the neck of urinary bladder and opens to the exterior at the tip of penis in males. It is a common pathway for passage of urine and semen. 

Q12. The leydig's cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of 

a. progesterone

b. intestinal mucus

c. glucagon 

d. androgens. 

Ans. d. androgens.

Explanation: Interstitial cells or Leydig's cells are the cells interspersed between the seminiferous tubules of the testis.  They secrete androgens (i.e. testosterone) in response to stimulation by lutenising hormone from the anterior pituitary gland.  

Q13. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from. 

a. testes to epididymis

b. epididymis to vas deferens 

c. ovary to uterus

d. vagina to uterus. 

Ans. a. testis to epididymis

Explanation: The male sex accessory ducts include the rete testis, vas efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.  The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.  The vasa efferentia leaves the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis.  So, if vasa efferentia gets blocked, the gametes will not be transported from testes to epididymis. 

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Q1. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

(a) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral meatus

(b) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia  Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra

(c) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral meatus

(d) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra

Ans. c.

Q2. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

(a) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis  Vas deferens

(b) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules  Vas deferens

(c) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules  Epididymis

(d) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens  Epididymis

Ans. a

Q3. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is

(a) urethra

(b) ureter

(c) vas deferens

(d) vasa efferentia. 

Ans. a. 

Q4. The Leydig’s cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of

(a) progesterone

(b) intestinal mucus

(c) glucagon

(d) androgens.       

Ans. d. androgens.

Q5. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis

(b) epididymis to vas deferens

(c) ovary to uterus

(d) vagina to uterus.

Ans. a. testes to epididymis

Q6. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for

(a) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

(b) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs

(c) providing more space for the growth of epididymis

(d) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex.

Ans. a. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature. 

Q7. Sertoli cells are found in

(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone

(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline

(c) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells

(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin.

Ans. c. seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells.

Q8. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

(a) testicular lobules to rete testis

(b) rete testis to vas deferens

(c) vas deferens to epididymis

(d) epididymis to urethra.

Ans. b. rete testis to vas deferns.

Q9. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in

(a) fructose and calcium

(b) glucose and calcium

(c) DNA and testosterone

(d) ribose and potassium.

Ans. a. fructose and calcium

Q10. Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?

(a) Male accessory glands

(b) Liver

(c) Pancreas

(d) Salivary glands

Ans. a. male accessory glands

Q11. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

(b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

Ans. d. fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

Q12. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.






(a)A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland

(b)A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Bulbourethral gland, D-Prostate 

(c)A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland

(d)A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle, D-Bulbourethral gland

Ans.

Q13. Male hormone is produced in the testis by cells of

(a) Sertoli

(b) epithelial

(c) spermatocytes

(d) Leydig.

Ans. d. Leydig.

Q14. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are

(a) liver-cholesterol

(b) ovary-estrogen

(c) testis-testosterone

(d) pancreas-glucagon.

Ans. c. testis-testosterone.

Q15. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of

(a) vas deferens

(b) mammary glands

(c) uterus

(d) prostate gland.

Ans. c. uterus

Explanation: Hysterectomy is the removal of uterus. It may also involve removal of cervix, ovaries, fallopian tubes and other surrounding structures.

Q16. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system. Which set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified?

(a) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae

(b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix

(c) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix

(d) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

Ans.

Q17. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

(a) isthmus

(b) infundibulum

(c) cervix

(d) ampulla.

Ans. b. infundibulum

Q18. Bartholin’s glands are situated

(a) on the sides of the head of some amphibians

(b) at the reduced tail end of birds

(c) on either side of vagina in humans

(d) on either side of vas deferens in humans. 

Ans. c. on either side of vagian in humans

Explanation: Bartholin's glands are situated on either side of vagina in human females.  These glands secrete a fluid that lubricates the vulva during copulation.

Q19. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed

(a) prior to ovulation

(b) at the time of copulation

(c) after zygote formation

(d) at the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum.

Ans. c. at the time of fusion of a sperm  with an ovum.

Q20. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(a) in spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

(b) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed

(c) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

(d) in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

Ans. d. in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

Explanation: Formation of spermatozoa from spermatids is called spermiogenesis. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the Sertoli Cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation.

Q21. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acellular?

(a) Stroma

(b) Zona pellucida

(c) Granulosa

(d) Theca interna 

Ans. b. zona pellucida.

Explanation: acellular  = a single cell

Q22. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid ?

(a) Spermatogonia

(b) Secondary polar body

(c) Primary polar body

(d) Spermatid

Ans. a. spermatogonia

Explanation: 

Q23. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

(a) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes, spermatids

(b) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa

(c) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

(d) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa, spermatids

Ans. b. spermatogonia - spermatocytes - spermatids - spermatozoa

Q24. The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of either A or B with function/characteristic.

(a) B- Corpus luteum - Secretes progesterone

(b) A- Tertiary follicle - Forms Graafian follicle

(c) B- Corpus luteum - Secretes estrogen

(d) A- Primary oocyte   - It is in the prophase I of the meiotic division

Q25. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?

(a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.

(b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium.

(c) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility.

(d) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension.

Ans. false - a. sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.

Explanation: sperm remain viable for 48 hours to 72 hours.

Q31. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 2

(d) 1

Ans. c. 2

Explanation: Spermatogonia are diploid cells which mature into primary spermatocytes (2n) by growth. They then produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes by meiosis I. Each secondary spermatocyte (n) completes the meiosis II and produces two spermatids (n). Each spermatid (n) develops into a spermatozoa or sperm (n).  Similarly, in females, oogonia are the diploid cells from which through meiosis, polar bodies (n) and single ovum (n) are produced. 

Q32. Egg is liberated from ovary in

(a) secondary oocyte stage

(b) primary oocyte stage

(c) oogonial stage

(d) mature ovum stage.

Ans. a. secondary oocyte stage.

Explanation: In humans, ovum is released from the ovary in the secondary oocyte stage.  The wall of the ovary gets ruptured to release the oocyte.  In humans ovulation occurs about 14 days before the onset of the next menstruation.  Ovulation is induced by LH.

Q33. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graffian follicle?

(a) High concentration of Estrogen

(b) High concentration of Progesterone

(c) Low concentration of LH

(d) Low concentration of FSH.

Ans.

26. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation.

(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation.

(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum.

(d) Acrosome serves no particular function. (2010)

 

(d) Low concentration of FSH (NEET 2020)

34. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because

(a) follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation

(b) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase

(c) LH levels are high in the luteal phase

(d) both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase. (Odisha NEET 2019)

35. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.

Column I Column II

A. Proliferative phase (i) Breakdown of

 

27. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is

(a) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid - sperms

(b) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia - sperms

 

B. Secretory phase

C. Menstruation

A B C

(a) (iii) (ii) (i)

(b) (i) (iii) (ii)

(c) (ii) (iii) (i)

 

endometrial lining

(ii) Follicular phase

(iii) Luteal phase

 

(c) spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte - sperms

(d) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid - sperms. (2009)

28. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the

(a) spermatids

(b) spermatogonia

(c) primary spermatocytes

(d) secondary spermatocytes. (2008)

29. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as

(a) LH (b) FSH

(c) GH (d) prolactin. (2006)

 

(d) (iii) (i) (ii) (NEET 2018)

36. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of

(a) progesterone only

(b) progesterone and inhibin

(c) estrogen and progesterone

(d) estrogen and inhibin. (NEET-I 2016)

37. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

(b) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.

(c) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

(d) LH triggers ovulation in ovary. 

Ans. 

38. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’.

(a) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH

(b) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH

(c) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and prolactin

(d) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH (NEET-I 2016)

39. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?

(a) Release of secondary oocyte

(b) LH surge

(c) Decrease in estradiol

(d) Full development of Graafian follicle (2015)

40. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce

(a) estrogen only

(b) progesterone

(c) human chorionic gonadotropin

(d) relaxin only. (2014)

41. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of

(a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin

(c) progesterone (d) FSH. (NEET 2013)

42. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

(a) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

(b) follicular phase and lasts for about 6 days

(c) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

(d) follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days.

(Mains 2012)

43. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called LH surge) normally occurs?

(a) 14th day (b) 20th day

(c) 5th day (d) 11th day

(Mains 2011)

44. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

(a) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration

of myometrium and maturation of Graafian

 

45. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?

(a) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining

(b) Maintenance of high concentration of sex- hormones in the blood stream

(c) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum

(d) Fertilisation of the ovum (2009)

46. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?

(a) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones.

(b) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche.

(c) During normal menstruation about 40 mL blood is lost.

(d) The menstrual fluid can easily clot. (2008)

47. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

(a) Stroma

(b) Germinal epithelium

(c) Vitelline membrane

(d) Graafian follicle

Ans.

48. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

(a) combination of FSH and LH

(b) combination of estrogen and progesterone

(c) FSH only (d) LH only.

Ans.

49. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?

(a) Progesterone

(b) Estrogen

(c) FSH

(d) FSH-RH

Ans.

50. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely?

(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate.

(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.

(c) Estrogen secretion further increases.

(d) Primary follicle starts developing.

Ans.

51. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle

(b) Secretory phase

(c) Menstruation

follicle

: Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone

: Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised

 

(a) at the mid secretory phase

(b) just before the end of the secretory phase

(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase

(d) at the end of the proliferative phase. (2004)

52. Which set is similar?

 

(d) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak

level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone

Ans.

(a) Corpus luteum - Graafian follicles

(b) Sebum - Sweat

(c) Bundle of His - Pacemaker

(d) Vitamin B7 - Niacin

Ans.

53. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into

(a) corpus artesia

(b) corpus callosum

(c) corpus luteum

(d) corpus albicans.

Ans.

54. In the fertile human female, approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?

(a) Day 14

(b) Day 18

(c) Day 1

(d) Day 8

Ans.

55. The mammalian corpus luteum produces

(a) luteotrophic hormone

(b) luteinising hormone

(c) estrogen

(d) progesterone.

Ans.

56. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes place typically on

(a) day 14 of the cycle

(b) day 28 of the cycle

(c) day 1 of the cycle

(d) day 5 of the cycle.

Ans.

57. Extrusion of second polar body from egg occurs

(a) simultaneously with first cleavage

(b) after entry of sperm but before fertilisation

(c) after fertilisation

(d) before entry of sperm into ovum.

Ans.

58. Capacitation occurs in

(a) epididymis

(b) vas deferens

(c) female reproductive tract

(d) rete testis.

Ans.

59. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if

(a) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix

(b) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus

(c) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube

(d) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Ans.

60. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until

(a) uterine implantation

(b) birth

(c) puberty

(d) fertilisation.

Ans.

61. Capacitation refers to changes in the

(a) ovum after fertilisation

(b) sperm after fertilisation

(c) sperm before fertilisation

(d) ovum before fertilisation.

Ans.

62. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in humans.

(a) Due to some defect like aspermia in man.

(b) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilises the egg.

(c) Due to the genetic make up of the egg.

(d) Due to some defect in the women.

Ans.

63. Identify the human developmental stage shown as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman and select the right option for the two, together.

Developmental Site of occurrence stage

(a) Late morula – Middle part of Fallopian tube

(b) Blastula – End part of Fallopian tube

(c) Blastocyst – Uterine wall

(d) 8-celled morula – Starting point of Fallopian tube

Ans.

64. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

(a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida.

(b) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails.

(c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one.

(d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida.

Ans.

65. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

(a) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube

(b) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm

(c) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

(d) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division.

Ans.

66. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

(a)It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.

(b)It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote.

(c)It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote.

(d)It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote.

Ans.

67. In human female, the blastocyst

(a) forms placenta even before implantation

(b) gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation

(c) gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

(d) gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells.A

Ans.

68. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

(a) pattern of cleavage

(b) number of blastomeres produced

(c) fertilisation

(d) formation of zygote.

Ans.

69. Grey crescent is the area

(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum

(b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum

(c) at the animal pole

(d) at the vegetal pole.

Ans.

Q70. What is true for cleavage?

(a) Size of embryo increases

(b) Size of cells decreases

(c) Size of cells increases

(d) Size of embryo decreases

Ans.(b) Size of cells decreases

Q71. Blastopore is the pore of

(a) archenteron

(b) blastocoel

(c) coelom

(d) alimentary canal.

Ans.(a) archenteron

Q72. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from

(a) polar bodies

(b) middle piece of sperm

(c) mature eggs

(d) acrosome.

Ans.(c) mature eggs

Q73. In human beings, the eggs are

(a) mesolecithal

(b) alecithal

(c) microlecithal

(d) macrolecithal. 

Ans.(b) alecithal

Q74. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined by

(a) the amount and distribution of yolk

(b) the number of egg membranes

(c) the shape and size of the sperm

(d) the size and location of the nucleus.

Ans. (a) the amount and distribution of yolk

Q75. What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans?

(a) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube.

(b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus.

(c) It is meroblastic.

(d) It is identical to the normal mitosis.

Ans. (a) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube

Q76. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by

(a) obliteration of blastocoel

(b) obliteration of archenteron

(c) closure of blastopore

(d) closure of neural tube.

Ans. (a) obliteration of blastocoel

Q77. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found

(a) all over the egg

(b) on one side

(c) both the sides

(d) centre.

Ans. (b) on one side

Q78. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by

(a) capacitation

(b) release of lysin

(c) influx of Na+

(d) release of fertilizin.

Ans.(c) influx of Na+

Q79. Meroblastic cleavage is a division which is

(a) horizontal

(b) partial/parietal

(c) total

(d) spiral.

Ans.(b) partial/parietal

Q80. Blastopore is

(a) opening of neural tube

(b) opening of gastrocoel

(c) future anterior end of embryo

(d) found in blastula.

Ans.(b) opening of gastrocoel

Q81. During cleavage, what is true about cells?

(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged.

(b) Size does not increase.

(c) There is less consumption of oxygen.

(d) The division is like meiosis.

Ans.(b) Size does not increase.

Q82. Freshly released human egg has

(a) one Y-chromosome

(b) one X-chromosome

(c) two X-chromosome

(d) one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome.

Ans. (b) one X-chromosome

Q83. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to

(a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA

(b) formation of hydrogen bonds

(c) mutual attraction due to differences in electrical charges

(d) attraction of their protoplasts.

Ans.(d) attraction of their protoplasts.

Q84. Cells become variable in morphology and function in different regions of the embryo. The process is

(a) differentiation

(b) metamorphosis

(c) organisation

(d) rearrangement.

Ans. (a) differentiation

Q85. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

.........Column-I.................Column-II

(A)......Placenta................(i) Androgens

(B).....Zona pellucida.......(ii)Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

(C).....Bulbourethral.........(iii)Layer of the ovum glands

(D).....Leydig cells.............(iv) Lubrication of the penis

(a) A(iv) B(iii) C(i) D(ii)

(b) A(i) B(iv) C(ii) D(iii)

(c) A(iii) B(ii) C(iv) D(i)

(d) A(ii) B(iii) C(iv) D(i)

Ans. (d) A(ii) B(iii) C(iv) D(i)

Q86. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(d) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids.

Ans.(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

Q87. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

(a) ectoderm and mesoderm

(b) endoderm and mesoderm

(c) mesoderm and trophoblast

(d) ectoderm and endoderm.

Ans.(a) ectoderm and mesoderm

Q88. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the given codes.

.............Column I...............Column II

A..........Mons pubis............(i) Embryo formation

B...........Antrum.................(ii) Sperm

C..........Trophectoderm......(iii) Female external genitalia

D..........Nebenkern.............(iv) Graafian follicle

(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(d) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

Ans.(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

Q89. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

(a) ovary

(b) placenta

(c) fallopian tube

(d) pituitary.

Ans.(b) placenta

Q90. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as

(a) implantation of defective embryo in the uterus

(b) pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance endometrium.

(c) pregnancies with genetic abnormality

(d) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.

Ans. (d) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.

Q91. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female.

(a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

(b) High level of FSH and LH facilitates implantation of the embryo.

(c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

(d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

Ans. (c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

Q92. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?

(a) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

(b) Secretes oxytocin during parturition

(c) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

(d) Secretes estrogen

Ans. (b) Secretes oxytocin during parturition

Q93. The first movements of the fetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?

(a) Fourth month

(b) Fifth month

(c) Sixth month

(d) Third month

Ans. (b) Fifth month

Q94. Which extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?

(a) Yolk sac

(b) Amnion

(c) Chorion

(d) Allantosis      

Ans.(b) Amnion

Q95. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?

(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin

(b) Prolactin

(c) Estrogen

(d) Progesterone

Ans.(b) Prolactin

Q96. During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called

(a) organiser phenomena

(b) axis formation

(c) anamorphosis

(d) pattern formation.

Ans. (a) organiser phenomena

Q97. The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from

(a) trophoblast

(b) inner cell mass

(c) formative cells

(d) follicle cells.

Ans.(a) trophoblast

Q98. Eye lens is formed from

(a) ectoderm

(b) mesoderm

(c) endoderm

(d) ectoderm and mesoderm. 

Ans.(a) ectoderm

Q99. Gonads develop from embryonic

(a) ectoderm

(b) endoderm

(c) mesoderm

(d) both mesoderm and endoderm.

Ans. (c) mesoderm

Q100. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(a) Release of oxytocin

(b) Release of prolactin

(c) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

(d) Synthesis of prostaglandins

Ans. (b) Release of prolactin

Q101. The fetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of

(a) oxytocin from fetal pituitary

(b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta

(c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta

(d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

Ans. (d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

Q102. Signals for parturition originate from

(a) both placenta as well as fully developed fetus

(b) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

(c) placenta only

(d) fully developed fetus only.

Ans.(a) both placenta as well as fully developed fetus

Q103. Signals from fully developed fetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of

(a) estrogen from placenta

(b) oxytocin from maternal pituitary

(c) oxytocin from fetal pituitary

(d) relaxin from placenta.

Ans.(b) oxytocin from maternal pituitary

Q104. Fetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(a) release of oxytocin from pituitary

(b) fully developed fetus and placenta

(c) differentiation of mammary glands

(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid.

Ans.(b) fully developed fetus and placenta

Q105. In human adult females oxytocin

(a) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin

(b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition

(c) is secreted by anterior pituitary

(d) stimulates growth of mammary glands

Ans. (b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition



Chapter 4 - Reproductive Health

Q.No.1 According to which of the following organisation reproductive health means a total well being in all aspects of reproduction?

a.WHL b.UNESCO c.WHO d.WWW

Ans. c.WHO

*

Q.No.2 Which one amongst the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as social goal?

a.China b.India c.Japan d.USA

Ans. b.India

*

Q.No.3 The family planning programmed in India were initiated in 

a.1951 b.1961 c.1971 d.1981

Ans. a.1951

*

Q.No.4 RCH stands for

a.Routine Check up of Health b.Reproductive cum Hygine c.Reversible Contraceptive Hazards

d.Reproductive and Child Health Care

Ans. d.Reproductive and Child Health Care

*

Q.No.5 The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called as 

a.leproscopy b.amniocentesis c.endoscopy d.ultrasound

Ans. b.amniocentesis

*

Q.No.6 Saheli a new oral contraceptive developed by

a. AIIMS b.Central Drug Research Institute c.Health care pvt ltd d.Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. ltd.

Ans. b.Central Drug Research Institute 

*

Q.No.7 What is the marriageable age for the females and males respectively in India?

a.18, 18 b.18, 25 c.21,18 d.18, 21

Ans. d.18,21

*

Q.No.8 which of the following is traditional method of contraception?

a. Implantation b.Lactational amenorrhoea c.Condoms d.Sterilisation 

Ans. b.Lactational amenorrhoea

*

Q.No.9 Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS?

a.Diaphragms b.Spermicidal foams c.Condoms d.Lactational Amenorrhoea

Ans. c.Condoms

*

Q.No.10 The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are 

a.disposable contraceptive devices b.reusable contraceptives c.non-medicated IUDs d.Cu-releasing IUDs

Ans. b.reusable contraceptives


Reproductive Health

Q.No.1 According to which of the following organisation reproductive health means a total well being in all aspects of reproduction?

a.WHL b.UNESCO c.WHO d.WWW

Ans. c.WHO

*

Q.No.2 Which one amongst the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as social goal?

a.China b.India c.Japan d.USA

Ans. b.India

*

Q.No.3 The family planning programmed in India were initiated in 

a.1951 b.1961 c.1971 d.1981

Ans. a.1951

*

Q.No.4 RCH stands for

a.Routine Check up of Health b.Reproductive cum Hygine c.Reversible Contraceptive Hazards

d.Reproductive and Child Health Care

Ans. d.Reproductive and Child Health Care

*

Q.No.5 The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called as 

a.leproscopy b.amniocentesis c.endoscopy d.ultrasound

Ans. b.amniocentesis

*

Q.No.6 Saheli a new oral contraceptive developed by

a. AIIMS b.Central Drug Research Institute c.Health care pvt ltd d.Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. ltd.

Ans. b.Central Drug Research Institute 

*

Q.No.7 What is the marriageable age for the females and males respectively in India?

a.18, 18 b.18, 25 c.21,18 d.18, 21

Ans. d.18,21

*

Q.No.8 which of the following is traditional method of contraception?

a. Implantation b.Lactational amenorrhoea c.Condoms d.Sterilisation 

Ans. b.Lactational amenorrhoea

*

Q.No.9 Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS?

a.Diaphragms b.Spermicidal foams c.Condoms d.Lactational Amenorrhoea

Ans. c.Condoms

*

Q.No.10 The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are 

a.disposable contraceptive devices b.reusable contraceptives c.non-medicated IUDs d.Cu-releasing IUDs

Ans. b.reusable contraceptives


Chapter 5 : Principles of Inheritance and variation


Q1. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?(a) 4 (b) 2(c) 14(d) 8 Ans. c.14Explanation: Mendel conducted artificial pollination or cross pollination experiments using several true-breeding pea lines. He selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for one character with contrasting traits. Some of the contrasting traits selected were smooth or wrinkled seeds, yellow or green seeds, inflated (full) or constricted green or yellow pods and tall or dwarf plants
Q2. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?(a) Trichomes-Glandular or non-glandular(b) Seed-Green or yellow(c) Pod-Inflated or constricted(d) Stem-Tall or dwarfAns. a. Trichomes-Glandular or non-glandularExplanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments:Character ..............Dominant...........RecessiveSeed shape.............Round (R)...........Wrinkled (r)Seed cotyledon colour...Yellow (Y).......Green (y)Flower colour...........Violet (V)............White (v)Pod shape...............Inflated(I)............Constricted (i)Pod colour...............Green (G)............Yellow (g)Flower position.........Axial (A).............Terminal (a)Stem height..............Tall (T).................Dwarf (t)Q3. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridisation experiments?(a) 1840-1850(b) 1857-1869(c) 1870-1877(d) 1856-1863Ans. d.1856-1863Explanation: Mendel carried out hybridisation experiments on garden pea for 7 years from 1856-1863.Q4. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use(a) seed shape(b) flower position(c) seed colour (d) pod length. (2015)Ans. d. Pod length Explanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments:Character ..............Dominant...........RecessiveSeed shape.............Round (R)...........Wrinkled (r)Seed cotyledon colour...Yellow (Y).......Green (y)Flower colour...........Violet (V)............White (v)Pod shape...............Inflated(I)............Constricted (i)Pod colour...............Green (G)............Yellow (g)Flower position.........Axial (A).............Terminal (a)Stem height..............Tall (T).................Dwarf (t)Q5. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?(a) Eight(b) Seven(c) Five(d) SixAns. b. sevenExplanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments:Character ..............Dominant...........RecessiveSeed shape.............Round (R)...........Wrinkled (r)Seed cotyledon colour...Yellow (Y).......Green (y)Flower colour...........Violet (V)............White (v)Pod shape...............Inflated(I)............Constricted (i)Pod colour...............Green (G)............Yellow (g)Flower position.........Axial (A).............Terminal (a)Stem height..............Tall (T).................Dwarf (t)Q6. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?(a) Axial flower position(b) Green seed colour(c) Green pod colour(d) Round seed shapeAns. b. Green seed colourExplanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments:Character ..............Dominant...........RecessiveSeed shape.............Round (R)...........Wrinkled (r)Seed cotyledon colour...Yellow (Y).......Green (y)Flower colour...........Violet (V)............White (v)Pod shape...............Inflated(I)............Constricted (i)Pod colour...............Green (G)............Yellow (g)Flower position.........Axial (A).............Terminal (a)Stem height..............Tall (T).................Dwarf (t)Q7. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes?(a) Seven(b) Six(c) Five (d) Four Ans. d FourExplanation: Mendel worked on seven characters. These characters showed complete independent assortment despite the seven characters chosen by him were present on four chromosomes –1, 4, 5 and 7.Q8. According to Mendelism, which character shows dominance?(a) Terminal position of flower(b) Green colour in seed coat(c) Wrinkled seeds(d) Green pod colourAns. d. Green pod colourExplanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments:Character ..............Dominant...........RecessiveSeed shape.............Round (R)...........Wrinkled (r)Seed cotyledon colour...Yellow (Y).......Green (y)Flower colour...........Violet (V)............White (v)Pod shape...............Inflated(I)............Constricted (i)Pod colour...............Green (G)............Yellow (g)Flower position.........Axial (A).............Terminal (a)Stem height..............Tall (T).................Dwarf (t)Q9. First geneticist/father of genetics was(a) De Vries(b) Mendel(c) Darwin(d) MorganAns. (b) MendelExplanation: An Austrian monk, Gregor Mendel, developed his theory of inheritance. He formulated the Law of Heredity. Therefore, he is called the ‘father of genetics’Q10. Which contribute to the success of Mendel?(a) Qualitative analysis of data(b) Observation of distinct inherited traits(c) His knowledge of biology(d) Consideration of one character at one timeAns. (d) Consideration of one character at one timeExplanation: : Consideration of one   character   at   one time contribute to the success of Mendel. Mendel’s contribution was unique because of his methodological approach to a definite problem, use of clear cut variables and application of mathematics (statistics) to the problem. Using pea plants and statistical methods, Mendel was able to demonstrate that traits were passed from each parent inheritance of genes.Q11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.(a) The gene (I) has three alleles.(b) A person will have only two of the three alleles.(c) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.(d) Allele i does not produce any sugar.Ans. (c) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.Explanation: ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The gene (I) has three alleles IA, IB and i. The alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different form of the sugar while allele i does not produce any sugar. Because humans are diploid organisms, each person possesses any two of the three I gene alleles. When IA and IB are present together they both express their own types of sugars,because of co-dominance.12. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation all pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statements from the following.(a) Law of segregation does not apply in this experiment.(b) This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.(c) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.(d) Ratio of F2 is 1 (red) : 2 (pink) : 1 (white)Ans. (a) Law of segregation does not apply in this experiment.Explanation: Law of segregation applies in this case as when pink flowers obtained in F1 are selfed then red and white flowers are obtained in F2 which indicates that there is no mixing of gametes.Q13. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IA IB and IA i. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(a)3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

(b)4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

(c)4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

(d)3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

Ans. (b)4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

Explanation: If the genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB and IAi respectively, then the probabilities of genotypes and phenotypes among their children can be worked out as:

                         IA           IB                     and       IA                            i

                       IAIA           IAi             IAIB               IB i

Genotype         IAIA                   IAi            IAIB           IB i

Phenotype        A              A              AB        B

Thus, there are four possible genotypes viz. IAIA     IAi    IAIB        IB i and three possible phenotypes viz. A, AB and B among the children.

14. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of

(a)3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf

(b)3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall

(c)1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous :Dwarf

(d)1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous: Dwarf.

Ans. (c)1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous :Dwarf

Explanation: When a tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant and the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1, i.e., Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf It can be illustrated as given below:

      Tall                   Dwarf

        TT                   tt                parent generation

         T                     t                Gametes

                 Tt                             F1 Generation

           Tall heterozygous

      Tt          x       Tt

TT       Tt                 Tt          tt                  F2 Generation

Tall     Tall              Tall       Dwarf

Phenotypic ratio:  3:1   Tall : Dwarf

Genotypic Ratio: 1:2:1   TT:Tt:tt

15. A gene showing co-dominance has

(a) alleles that are recessive to each other

(b) both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote

(c) one allele dominant on the other

(d) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome

Ans. (b) both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote

Explanation: The phenomenon of expression of both the alleles in a heterozygote is called co-dominance. The alleles which do not show dominance-recessive relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present together are called co-dominant alleles. As a result the heterozygous condition has a phenotype different from either of homozygous genotypes, e.g., alleles for blood group A (IA) and for blood group B (IB) are codominant so that when they come together in an individual, they produce blood group AB.

16. Alleles are

(a) different molecular forms of a gene

(b) heterozygotes

(c) different phenotype

(d) true breeding homozygotes.

Ans. (a) different molecular forms of a gene

Explanation: Genes are the units of inheritance and contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an organism. Alternating forms of a single gene which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles. For example, two alleles determine the height of pea plant (tall and dwarf).

17. Multiple alleles are present

(a) at the same locus of the chromosome

(b) on non-sister chromatids

(c) on different chromosomes

(d) at different loci on the same chromosome.

Ans. (a) at the same locus of the chromosome

Explanation: 

18. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?

(a)A, B, AB and O

(b) O only

(c) A and B only

(d) A, B and AB only

Ans. (a) A, B, AB and O

Explanation: The man has blood group A, thus its genotype can either be  IAIA or  IAIo. Similarly, woman can either have IBIB, or IBIO genotype. Thus, their offspring can have any of the blood groups A (IAIA or  IAIo), B (IBIB or  IBIo), AB (IAIB) or O (IoIo). 

19. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This in an example of

(a) partial dominance

(b) complete dominance

(c) codominance

(d) incomplete dominance.

Ans. (c) codominance

Explanation: The phenomenon of expression of both the alleles in a heterozygote is called co-dominance. The alleles which do not show dominance-recessive relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present together are called co-dominant alleles. As a result the heterozygous condition has a phenotype different from either of homozygous genotypes, e.g., alleles for blood group A (IA) and for blood group B (IB) are codominant so that when they come together in an individual, they produce blood group AB.

20. Which idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

(a) Inheritance of one gene

(b) Co-dominance

(c) Incomplete dominance

(d) Complete dominance

Ans. (b) Co-dominance

Explanation: In co-dominance, both the alleles are able to express themselves independently when present together resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between both the parental homozygous phenotypes, thereby resembling both of them. E.g., roan coat colour in cattle is a result of co-dominance of alleles for white and red coat colour.

Q21. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1.

It represents a case of

(a) co-dominance

(b) dihybrid cross

(c) monohybrid cross with complete dominance

(d) monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance.

Ans. (d) monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance.

Explanation: The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.) is a an example of incomplete dominance. In a cross between true- breeding red-flowered (RR) and true-breeding white- flowered plants (rr), the F1 (Rr) was pink. When the F1 was self-pollinated the F2 resulted in the following ratio, 1 (RR) Red : 2 (Rr) Pink : 1 (rr) White. Here, the genotype ratios were 1 : 2 : 1 as in any Mendelian monohybrid cross, but the phenotype ratios had changed from the 3 : 1 dominant : recessive ratio to 1 : 2 : 1. 

Q22. A test cross is carried out to

(a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2

(b) predict whether two traits are linked

(c) assess the number of alleles of a gene

(d) determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully. (Mains 2012)

Ans. (a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2

Explanation: Test cross is performed to determine the genotype of F2 plant. In a typical test cross, an organism showing dominant phenotype and whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with one that is homozygous recessive for the allele being investigated, instead of self- crossing. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to predict the genotype of the test organism. Given below is an illustration of test cross:

F2 Plant Purple Flower

                                              Dominant phenotype

                                               Unknown phenotype

                                                two possibilities 

Test                   White flower                              White flower

cross              pp         x      PP                                   Pp      x       PP 

               homozygous     homozygous                heterozygous      homozygous

                recessive            dominant                    dominant             recessive

Gametes    p   p              P    P                              P  p               p    p 


                Pp Pp     Pp        Pp                                Pp  Pp           PP    pp 

                All flowers purple                                 half purple       half white

Q23. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing

(a) between two genotypes with recessive trait

(b) between two F1 hybrids

(c) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype

(d) between two genotypes with dominant trait.

Ans. c) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Explanation: the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Q24. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles - IA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?

(a) Three

(b) One

(c) Four

(d) Two

Ans. (c) Four

Explanation:

The three alleles IA, IB and i of gene I in ABO blood group system can produce six different genotypes and four different phenotypes as shown below :

Genotypes                   Phenotypes

IA,IA                        Blood group A

IAi


IB,IB                        Blood group B

IB i  


IAIB    Blood group AB

ii         Blood group O

 

25. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by

(a) test cross

(b) dihybrid cross

(c) pedigree analysis

(d) back cross.   

Ans. a. Test cross

Explanation: Test cross is performed to determine the genotype of F2 plant. In a typical test cross, an organism showing dominant phenotype and whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with one that is homozygous recessive for the allele being investigated, instead of self- crossing. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to predict the genotype of the test organism. Given below is an illustration of test cross:

F2 Plant Purple Flower

                                              Dominant phenotype

                                               Unknown phenotype

                                                two possibilities 

Test                   White flower                              White flower

cross              pp         x      PP                                   Pp      x       PP 

               homozygous     homozygous                heterozygous      homozygous

                recessive            dominant                    dominant             recessive

Gametes    p   p              P    P                              P  p               p    p 


                Pp Pp     Pp        Pp                                Pp  Pp           PP    pp 

                All flowers purple                                 half purple       half white

26. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of dominance?

(a) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor.

(b) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive.

(c) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.

(d) Factors occur in pairs. (2010)

Ans. (c) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.

Explanation: According to Mendel’s law of dominance, in heterozygous individuals a character is represented by two contrasting factors called alleles or allelomorphs which occur in pairs. Out of the two contrasting alleles, only one is able to express its effect in the individual. It is called dominant factor or dominant allele. The other allele which does not show its effect in the heterozygous individual is called recessive factor or recessive allele. The option (c) in the given question cannot be explained on the basis of law of dominance. It can only be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of independent assortment, according to which in a dihybrid cross, the two alleles of each character assort independently (do not show any blending) of the alleles of other character and separate at the time of gamete formation. Both the characters are recovered as such in F2 generation producing both parental and new combinations of traits.

27. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show co-dominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible?

(a) Six

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five 

Ans. c) Four

Explanation: The three alleles IA, IB and i of gene I in ABO blood group system can produce six different genotypes and four different phenotypes as shown below :

Genotypes                   Phenotypes

IA,IA                        Blood group A

IAi


IB,IB                        Blood group B

IB i  


IAIB    Blood group AB

ii         Blood group O

28. A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

(a) monohybrid cross   

(b) back cross

(c) test cross

(d) dihybrid cross.

Ans. c) test cross

Explanation: Test cross is performed to determine the genotype of F2 plant. In a typical test cross, an organism showing dominant phenotype and whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with one that is homozygous recessive for the allele being investigated, instead of self- crossing. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to predict the genotype of the test organism. Given below is an illustration of test cross:

F2 Plant Purple Flower

                                              Dominant phenotype

                                               Unknown phenotype

                                                two possibilities 

Test                   White flower                              White flower

cross              pp         x      PP                                   Pp      x       PP 

               homozygous     homozygous                heterozygous      homozygous

                recessive            dominant                    dominant             recessive

Gametes    p   p              P    P                              P  p               p    p 


                Pp Pp     Pp        Pp                                Pp  Pp           PP    pp 

                All flowers purple                                 half purple       half white


29. In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridisation? Red flower colour is determined by RR and white by rr genes.

(a) rrrr

(b) RR

(c) Rr

(d) rr

Ans. (c) Rr

Explanation: The given situation is an example of incomplete dominance where phenotype found in F1 generation do not resemble either of the two parents. The genotype of the two plants used for cross will be:


Parents genotype                Rr                 x               Rr

Phenotype                         Pink                              Pink

Gametes                         R     r                             R        r

Cross                            RR   Rr

                                    Rr   rr

Genotype ratio;   RR :  Rr  :  rr

                         1    :   2    :   1

Phenotype ratio Red : Pink: White


The incomplete dominance of dominant allele (here‘R’) over recessive allele (here ‘r’) could be due to mutations (insertion, deletion, substitution or inversion of nucleotides). The mutant allele generally produces a faulty or no product. This modification in the product may lead to incomplete dominance of the (unmodified) wild type dominant allele.


30. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation? 

(a) 9 : 1

(b) 1 : 3

(c) 3 : 1

(d) 50 : 50

Ans. (d) 50 : 50

Explanation: Yellow (Y) seeds are dominant to green (y). So, a heterozygous yellow seeded plant will have the genotype of (Yy) and a green seeded plant will have genotype of (yy). When these two plants are crossed, the F1 generation will have the ratio of yellow : green as 50 : 50. It is shown as:

                    Yy (heterozygous yellow)             x           yy (homozygous green)

gametes          Y      y                                               y            y 


F1 Generation                Yy                                                        yy                       

F1 Generation                 Yellow                        :                      green

                                           50                        :                        50

31. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent

(b) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies

(c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

(d) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent

Ans. (c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

Explanation: A common test to find the genotypes of a hybrid is by crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

32. Test cross involves

(a) crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

(b) crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait

(c) crossing between two F1 hybrids

(d) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype.

Ans. (d) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Explanation: Test cross is performed to determine the genotype of F2 plant. In a typical test cross, an organism showing dominant phenotype and whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with one that is homozygous recessive for the allele being investigated, instead of self- crossing. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to predict the genotype of the test organism. Given below is an illustration of test cross:

F2 Plant Purple Flower

                                              Dominant phenotype

                                               Unknown phenotype

                                                two possibilities 

Test                   White flower                              White flower

cross              pp         x      PP                                   Pp      x       PP 

               homozygous     homozygous                heterozygous      homozygous

                recessive            dominant                    dominant             recessive

Gametes    p   p              P    P                              P  p               p    p 


                Pp Pp     Pp        Pp                                Pp  Pp           PP    pp 

                All flowers purple                                 half purple       half white 

33. Phenotype of an organism is the result of

(a) genotype and environment interactions

(b) mutations and linkages

(c) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition

(d) environmental changes and sexual dimorphism.

Ans. (a) genotype and environment interactions

Explanation: The external manifestation, morphological or physiological expression of an individual with regard to one or more characters is called phenotype. For recessive genes, phenotype and genotype are similar. For dominant genes, the phenotype is same for both homozygous states. Phenotype is influenced by environment as well as age. A child definitely differs from adolescent, the latter from adult and an adult from aged one. Many phenotypes are determined by multiple genes. Thus, the identity of phenotype is determined by genotype and environment

34. A gene is said to be dominant if

(a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state

(b) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition

(c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition

(d) it never expresses its effect in any condition.

Ans. (c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition

Explanation: Dominant factor is an allele or Mendelian factor which expressess itself in the hybrid (heterozygous) as well as in homozygous state. It is denoted by capital letter.

35. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called

(a) co-dominance

(b) dominance

(c) amphidominance

(d) pseudodominance.

Ans. (a) co-dominance

Explanation: In co-dominance, both the alleles are able to express themselves independently when present together resulting in a phenotype that is intermediate between both the parental homozygous phenotypes, thereby resembling both of them. E.g., roan coat colour in cattle is a result of co-dominance of alleles for white and red coat colour.

36. In hybridisation, Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio

(a) 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2 : 1

(c) 1 : 1

(d) 1 : 2.

Ans. (c) 1 : 1

Explanation: Crossing of individuals having dominant phenotype with its homozygous recessive is a test cross, which can be represented as:

F1 hybrid          x           Homozygous recessive

Tt                      x            tt - parent


T  &   t                              t -Gametes


Tt (tall)     tt (Dwarf)       Test cross progeny

Thus, ratio of progeny is = 1:1

37. A child’s blood group is ‘O’. The parent’s blood groups cannot be

(a) A and B

(b) A and A 

(c) AB and O

(d) B and O

Ans. C. AB and O 

Explanation: O blood group of a child cannot be obtained from the parents having blood group O × AB. The parents blood groups may be A × O, A × B, B × O, B × A, O × A and O × B.

38. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be 

(a) IOIO (b) IBIB

(c) IAIB (d) IBIO

Ans. d. IBIO

Explanation: The genotype of the child would be IOIO (recessive). Hence, the genotype of the father can only be IBIO.

39.An allele is dominant if it is expressed in

(a)both homozygous and heterozygous states

(b)second generation

(c)heterozygous combination

(d)homozygous combination.

Ans. (a)both homozygous and heterozygous states

Explanation: 

40.An organism with two identical alleles is 

(a) dominant

(b) hybrid

(c) heterozygous

(d) homozygous.   (1992)

Ans. (d) homozygous.  

Explanation: An organism with two identical alleles is homozygous. Homozygous have identical genes at the same locus on each member of a pair of homologous/ chromosomes.

41.A man of A-blood group marries a woman of AB blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous A?

(a)AB

(b) A

(c) O

(d) B

Ans. d. B

Explanation: IAIO × IAIB gives us the following genotypes IAIA, IOIB, IAIB. Hence, when a man of blood group A marries a woman of AB blood group, B progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous A. 

42. Multiple alleles control inheritance of

(a) phenylketonuria

(b) colour blindness

(c) sickle cell anaemia

(d) blood groups. 

Ans. (d) blood groups

Explanation: ABO blood group system is due to multiple allelism. A gene can have more than two alleles or allelomorphs, which can be expressed by mutation in wild form in more than one ways. These alleles or allelomorphs make a series of multiple alleles. The mode of inheritance in case of multiple alleles is called multiple allelism. A well known and simplest example of multiple allelism is the inheritance of ABO blood groups in human beings. In human population, 3 different alleles for this character are found - IA IB and IO. A person is having only two of these three alleles and blood type can be determined. 

43. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called

(a) multiple alleles

(b) allelomorphs

(c) alloloci

(d) paramorphs.

Ans. (b) allelomorphs

Explanation: The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called allelomorphs. Alleles or allelomorphs are the different forms of a gene, having the same locus on homologous chromosomes and are subject to Mendelian (alternative) inheritance.

44. Mendel’s last law is

(a) segregation

(b) dominance

(c) independent assortment

(d) polygenic inheritance. (1991)

Ans. (c) independent assortment

Explanation: Mendel’s last law is independent assortment. The principle of independent assortment states that when two individuals differ from each other in two or more pairs of factors, the inheritance of one pair is quite independent of the inheritance of other

45. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour. A brown eyed man whose mother was blue eyed marries a blue-eyed woman. The children will be

(a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1

(b) all brown eyed

(c) all blue eyed

(d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 : 1.

Ans. (a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1

Explanation: The brown eyed man will have the genotype Bb and his wife bb. Hence, Bb × bb = Bb : bb. Therefore, the children shall be both blue eyed and brown eyed the ratio is 1 : 1.

46. RR (Red) Antirrhinum is crossed with white (WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an example of

(a) dominant-recessive

(b) incomplete dominance

(c) hybrid

(d) supplementary genes.

Ans. (b) incomplete dominance

Explanation: : The inheritance of flower colour in the dog

flower (snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.) is a an example of incomplete dominance. In a cross between true- breeding red-flowered (RR) and true-breeding white- flowered plants (rr), the F1 (Rr) was pink. When the F1 was self-pollinated the F2 resulted in the following ratio, 1 (RR) Red : 2 (Rr) Pink : 1 (rr) White. Here, the genotype ratios were 1 : 2 : 1 as in any Mendelian monohybrid cross, but the phenotype ratios had changed from the 3 : 1 dominant : recessive ratio to 1 : 2 : 1.

47. ABO blood group system is due to

(a) multifactor inheritance

(b) incomplete dominance

(c) multiple allelism

(d) epistasis. (1990)

Ans. c. multiple allelism

Explanation: ABO blood group system is due to multiple allelism. A gene can have more than two alleles or allelomorphs, which can be expressed by mutation in wild form in more than one ways. These alleles or allelomorphs make a series of multiple alleles. The mode of inheritance in case of multiple alleles is called multiple allelism. A well known and simplest example of multiple allelism is the inheritance of ABO blood groups in human beings. In human population, 3 different alleles for this character are found - IA IB and IO. A person is having only two of these three alleles and blood type can be determined.

48. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring?

(a) 75% recessive (b) 50% recessive

(c) 25% recessive (d) All dominant

Ans. b.50% recessive

Explanation: 

Crossing of individuals having dominant phenotype with its homozygous recessive is a test cross, which can be represented as:

F1 hybrid          x           Homozygous recessive

Tt                      x            tt - parent


T  &   t                              t -Gametes


Tt (tall)     tt (Dwarf)       Test cross progeny

Thus, ratio of progeny is = 1:1

49. Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/mutations because there are

(a) many alleles for each gene

(b) two alleles for each gene

(c) only one allele for each gene in the individual

(d) only one allele in a gene.

Ans. c. only one allele for each gene in the individual

Explanation: Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/ mutations because there are only one allele for each gene in the individual. Diploid is an organism containing two different alleles or individual containing both dominant and recessive genes of an allelic pairs.

50. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

(a) Mendel (b) Sutton

(c) Boveri (d) Morgan. 

Ans. d. Sutton and Boveri

Explanation: Sutton and Boveri proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance but its experimental verification was done by Thomas Hunt Morgan.

51. What map unit (centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

(a) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.

(b) A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 10% cross over.

(c) A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 100% cross over.

(d) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.

Ans. d. A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over

Explanation: Genetic map is a linear graphic representation of the sequence and relative distance of various genes present in a chromosome. 1% crossing over between two linked genes is known as 1 map unit or centiMorgan (cM).

52. The frequency of recombination between gene present on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by

(a) Sutton Boveri (b) T.H. Morgan

(c) Gregor J.Mendel     (d) Alfred Sturtevant.

Ans. d. Alfred Sturtevant

Explanation: T.H. Morgan coined the term linkage to describe the physical association of genes on chromosome and term recombination to describe the generation of non- parental gene combinations. Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes.

Q53. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

(a) inversion (b) duplication

(c) translocation (d) crossing-over.

Ans. c. translocation

Explanation: Translocation is a chromosomal abnormality caused by rearrangement of parts between non- homologous chromosomes. It may cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another.

Q54. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates

(a) the two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome

(b) both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene

(c) the two genes are located on two different chromosomes

(d) chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.

Ans.  (a) the two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome

Explanation: If in a dihybrid test cross more parental combinations appear as compared to the recombinants in F2 generation, then it is indicative of involvement of linkage. Linkage is the tendency of two different genes on the same chromosome to remain together during the separation of homologous chromosomes at meiosis. During complete linkage no recombinants are formed whereas in incomplete linkage few recombinants are produced along with parental combinations

55. The term “linkage” was coined by

(a) G. Mendel (b) W. Sutton

(c) T.H. Morgan (d) T. Boveri. (2015)

Ans. (c) T.H. Morgan

Explanation: Linkage is the phenomenon of certain genes staying together during inheritance through generations without any change or separation due to their being present on the same chromosome. Linkage was first suggested by Sutton and Boveri (1902-1903) when they propounded the famous “chromosomal theory of inheritance.” Bateson and Punnett (1906) while working on sweet pea found that the factors for certain characters do not show independent assortment. However, it was Morgan (1910) who clearly proved and defined linkage on the basis of his breeding experiments in fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster).

56. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called

(a) translocation (b) crossing over

(c) inversion (d) duplication.

Ans. (a) translocation

Explanation:  Translocation is a chromosomal abnormality caused by rearrangement of parts between non- homologous chromosomes. It may cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another.

57. Fruit colour in squash is an example of

(a) recessive epistasis

(b) dominant epistasis

(c) complementary genes

(d) inhibitory genes.

Ans. (b) dominant epistasis

Explanation: A dominant epistatic allele suppresses the expression of a non-allelic gene whether the latter is dominant or recessive. The gene which suppresses the expression of a non-allelic gene is known as epistatic gene. The gene or locus which is suppressed by the presence of non-allelic gene is termed as hypostatic gene. In summer squash or Cucurbita pepo, there are three types of fruit colour— yellow, green and white. White colour is dominant over other colours while yellow is dominant over green. Yellow colour is formed only when the dominant epistatic gene is represented by its recessive allele (w). When the hypostatic gene is also recessive (y), the colour of the fruit is green, i.e.,


W_ Yy, W_ yy = White 

wwY_     = Yellow

 wwyy           =  Green

58. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

(a) The gene show independent assortment.

(b) If the genes are present on the same chromo- some, they undergo more than one cross-overs in every meiosis.

(c) The genes may be on different chromosomes.

(d) The genes are tightly linked.      

Ans. (d) The genes are tightly linked.   

Explanation

59. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called

(a) heterosis (b) transformation

(c) splicing (d) metamorphosis.

Ans. (a) heterosis

Explanation: The increased vigour displayed by the offspring from a cross between genetically different parents is called heterosis. Hybrids from crosses between different crop varieties (F1 hybrids) are often stronger and produce better yields than the original varieties.

60. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.

(a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations.

(b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

(c) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations.

(d) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Ans. (d) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

Explanation: Linkage is the phenomenon of certain genes staying together during inheritance through generations without any change or separation due to their being present on the same chromosome. Linked genes occur in the same chromosome. Strength of the linkage between two genes is inversely proportional to the distance between the two, i.e., two linked genes show higher frequency of crossing over (recombination) if the distance between them is higher and lower frequency if the distance is small.

61. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

(a) AaBB (b) AABb

(c) AABB (d) AaBb

Ans. d) AaBb

Explanation As sperms produced are with genotypes AB, Ab, aB, ab (two diallelic character) the person must be heterozygous for both genes. So, his genotype will be AaBb.

62. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY × rryy?

(a) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

(b) Only round seeds with green cotyledons

(c) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

(d) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons

Ans. (a) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

Explanation: Since round seed shape is dominant over wrinkled seed shape and yellow cotyledon is dominant over green cotyledon so RRYY individuals is round yellow and rryy is wrinkled green.

Round yellow seeds × Wrinkled green seeds 

               RRYY           rryy


F1 generation    RrYy

F2 generation is obtained by selfing  F1.

RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy

RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy

RrYY RrYy         rrYY rrYy

RrYy         Rryy           rrYy rryy


Expected phenotypes in F2 generation 

Round yellow seed - Wrinkled yellow seed - Round green seed - Wrinkled green seed 

        9                               3                              3                         1

63. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype

(a) AABB

(b) AaBb  

(c) aabb

(d) aaBB.

Ans. (c) aabb

Explanation: A test cross involving the crossing of F1 individual with the homozygous recessive parent. It is done to find out homozygous and heterozygous individuals. So, AaBb should be crossed with aabb.

64. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit

(r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt,

(a) 25% will be tall with red fruit

(b) 50% will be tall with red fruit

(c) 75% will be tall with red fruit

(d) all the offspring will be tall with red fruit.

Ans. 

Explanation

65. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion (b) recombination

(c) linkage (d) crossing over.

Ans. 

Explanation

66. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as

(a) test cross (b) reciprocal cross

(c) dihybrid cross (d) reverse cross.   

Ans. 

Explanation

67. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome?

(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c

(c) a, c, b (d) None of these   

Ans. 

Explanation

68. Two non-allelic genes produces the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently then it is called

(a) epistasis

(b) polygene

(c) non complementary gene

(d) complementary gene.

Ans. 

Explanation

69. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?

(a) AAbb and aabb (b) AaBb and aabb

(c) AABB and aabb (d) None of these

Ans. 

Explanation

70. Ratio of complementary genes is

(a) 9 : 3 : 4

(b) 12 : 3 : 1

(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4

(d) 9 : 7.

Ans. (d) 9 : 7.

Explanation: If two genes present on different loci produce the same effect when present alone but interact to form a new trait when present together, they are called complementary genes. The F2 ratio is modified to 9 : 7 instead of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

71. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when

(a) genes are located on homologous chromosomes

(b) genes are linked and located on same chromosome

(c) genes are located on non-homogenous chromosome

(d) all of these. (2001)

72. Due to the cross between TTRr × ttrr the resultant progenies show what percent of tall, red flowered plants?

(a) 50% (b) 75%

(c) 25% (d) 100% (2000)

73. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene. The phenomenon is called

(a) dominance (b) segregation

(c) epistasis (d) mutation.         (1999)

74. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?

(a) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment.

(b) He would have discovered sex linkage.

(c) He could have mapped the chromosome.

(d) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance. (1998)

75. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for

(a) segregation of alleles

(b) recombination of linked alleles

(c) dominance of genes

(d) linkage between genes. (1998)

76. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes, when mated with normal female fruit fly, the males specific chromosome will enter egg cell in the proportion

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 7 : 1

(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1.

77. When two dominant independently assorting genes react with each other, they are called

(a) collaborative genes (b) complementary genes

(c) duplicate genes (d) supplementary genes.

(1996)

78. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are considered to be

(a) multiple alleles (b) the parts of same gene

(c) pseudoalleles (d) different genes. (1995)

79. The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known as

(a) epistasis (b) dominance

(c) suppression (d) inactivation.     (1995)

80. Which of the following is suitable for experiment on linkage?

(a) aaBB × aaBB (b) AABB × aabb

(c) AaBb × AaBb (d) AAbb × AaBB

(1993)

81. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is

(a) cis type (b) trans type

(c) complete (d) absent/incomplete.

(1993)

82. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs of traits in pea which can have 21 possible combinations. If you are told that in one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be

(a) independent assortment principle may be wrong

(b) Mendel might not have studied all the combinations

(c) it is impossible

(d) later studies may be wrong. (1993)

83. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be

(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2

(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1.       (1992)

84. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing over) occurs during

(a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II

(c) diplotene (d) metaphase I.     (1992)

85. The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called

(a) codominant (b) supplementary

(c) complementary        (d) recessive. (1991)

86. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form

(a) 1AaBB : 1aaBB (b) all AaBB

(c) 3AaBB : 1aaBB (d) 1AaBB : 3aaBB.

(1990)

 

45

87. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotypic ratio would be

(a) 9 : 6 : 1 (b) 15 : 1

(c) 9 : 3 : 4 (d) 12 : 3 : 1. (1990)

88. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct parental of coupling type alongwith its cross over or repulsion.

(a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb

(b) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb

(c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb

(d) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AAbb, aaBB

(1990)

89. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during

(a) diplotene (b) anaphase I

(c) zygotene/pachytene (d) anaphase II.     (1990)

90. Two linked genes a and b show 20% recombination. the individuals of a dihybrid cross between ++/++ × ab/ab shall show gametes

(a) ++ : 80 : : ab : 20

(b) ++ : 50 : : ab : 50

(c) ++ : 40 : : ab : 40 : : + a : 10 : : + b : 10

(d) ++ : 30 : : ab : 30 : : + a : 20 : : + b : 20. (1989)

Polygenic Inheritance

91. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?

(i) Dominance

(ii) Co-dominance

(iii) Multiple allele

(iv) Incomplete dominance

(v) Polygenic inheritance

(a) (ii), (iii) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) (d) (i), (iii) and (v)

(NEET 2018)

92. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of

(a) point mutation

(b) polygenic inheritance

(c) codominance

(d) chromosomal aberration. (2007)

93. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?

(a) Two (b) Three

(c) Four (d) Nine (2006)

94. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

(a) Skin colour in humans

(b) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

(c) Production of male honeybee

(d) Pod shape in garden pea (2006)

 

46 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology

 

95. On selfing a plant of F1-generation with genotype “AABbCC”, the genotypic ratio in F2-generation will be

(a) 3 : 1

(b) 1 : 1

(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1. (2002)

96. In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of

(a) sickle-cell anaemia (b) skin colour

(c) colour blindness (d) phenylketonuria.

(1999)

97. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype AABbCc?

(a) Six (b) Nine

(c) Two (d) Four (1998)

98. The polygenic genes show

(a) different karyotypes (b) different genotypes

(c) different phenotypes (d) none of these.   (1996)

99. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is

(a) skin colour (b) phenylketonuria

(c) colour blindness     (d) sickle cell anaemia.

(1993)

Pleiotropy

100. Match the terms in column I with their description in column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

A. Dominance (i) Many genes govern a

single character

B. Co-dominance (ii) In a heterozygous

organism only one allele expresses itself

C. Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous

organism both alleles express themselves fully

D. Polygenic (iv) A single gene inheritance

influences many characters

A B C D

(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (NEET-I 2016)

101. A pleiotropic gene

(a) controls a trait only in combination with another gene

(b) controls multiple traits in an individual

(c) is expressed only in primitive plants

(d) is a gene evolved during Pliocene. (2015)

 

102. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?

(a) Haemophilia (b) Thalassemia

(c) Sickle cell anaemia (d) Colour blindness

(2002)

103. When a single gene influences more than one trait it is called

(a) pseudodominance (b) pleiotropy

(c) epistasis (d) none of these. (1998)

Sex Determination

104. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than other.

(b) Male fruit fly is heterogametic.

(c) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome.

(d) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg.

(NEET 2019)

105. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(a) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

(b) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

(c) XO type sex determination: Grasshopper

(d) T.H. Morgan : Linkage (NEET 2018)

106. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

(a) Two X chromosomes

(b) Only one Y chromosome

(c) Only one X chromosome

(d) One X and one Y chromosome (Mains 2011)

107. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by

(a) the ratio of number of X-chromosome to the sets of autosomes

(b) X and Y chromosomes

(c) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes

(d) whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically. (2003)

108. Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female is

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4. (2001)

109. Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to

(a) deletion

(b) transfer of segments in X and Y chromosome

(c) aneuploidy

(d) hormonal imbalance. (2001)

110. Probability of four sons to a couple is (a) 1/4 (b) 1/8

(c) 1/16 (d) 1/32. (2001)

 

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

111. Genetic identity of a human male is determined by

(a) sex-chromosome (b) cell organelles

 

47

(c) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive

trait,chromosome -11

 

(c) autosome (d) nucleolus. (1997)

112. When an animal has both the characters of male and female, it is called

(a) super female

(b) super male

(c) intersex

(d) gynandromorph.

Ans. d. gynandromorph

Explanation: Gynandromorph (hermaphrodite) is an animal that possesses both male and female characteristics. For example, earthworm.

113. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and d allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion of Bd in sperms?

(a) Zero

(b) 1/2

(c) 1/4

(d) 1/8

Ans. c. 1/4

114. Sex is determined in human beings

(a) by ovum

(b) at time of fertilisation

(c) 40 days after fertilisation

(d) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in fetus.

Ans. (b) at time of fertilisation

Explanation: Sex is determined in human beings at the time of fertilisation. Sex of the baby depends upon the sperm which fertilises the ovum.

115. A normal green male maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because

(a) trait for a albinism is dominant

(b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived from green male

(c) plastids are inherited from female parent

(d) green plastids of male must have mutated.

Ans. (c) plastids are inherited from female parent

Explanation: A normal green male maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because, plastids are inherited from female parents.

116. A family of five daughter only is expecting sixth issue. The chance of its being a son is

(a) zero

(b) 25%

(c) 50%

(d) 100%.

Ans. (c) 50%

Explanation: A family of five daughter only is expecting sixth issue. The chance of its beings a son is 50%. Human have 22 pairs chromosomes which are XX in females and XY in males. So if we cross the parents there is 1 : 1 chance for boy and girl.

117. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male. During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in

(a) one-third of the progenies

(b) none of the progenies

(c) all the progenies

(d) fifty percent of the progenies.

Ans. (b) none of the progenies

Explanation: Mutation is a sudden alteration of the chemical structure of a gene or the alteration of its position on the chromosome by breaking and rejoining of the chromosome. It has occurred in male parent. But organelles like mitochondria, chloroplast etc., are a part of cytoplasmic inheritance.

Cytoplasmic inheritance is the passage of traits from parents to offspring through structures present inside the cytoplasm of contributing gametes. Plasma genes occur in plastids, mitochondria, plasmids and some special particles like kappa particles, sigma particles, etc. In higher organisms cytoplasmic inheritance is called maternal inheritance because the zygote receives most of its cytoplasm from the ovum. Therefore, cytoplasmic inheritance is usually uniparental. So, none of the progeny will show mutation.


118. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease called

(a) Down’s syndrome

(b) sickle cell anaemia

(c) thalassaemia

(d) night blindness.

Ans. (b) sickle cell anaemia

Explanation: Point mutation involves only the replacement of one nucleotide with another. One type of point mutation is missense mutation. These are base changes that alter the codon for an amino acid resulting in its substitution with a different amino acid. For example, mutation of the codon CTT to ATT would result in the replacement of the hydrophobic amino acid leucine with isoleucine, another hydrophobic amino acid. Many other missense mutations have been described which do affect the encoded protein and result in genetic diseases. These include an A to T mutation in the gene for β-globin, one of the polypeptides of haemoglobin. This mutation changes codon six of the gene from GAG which encodes glutamic acid to GTG which encodes valine. The mutation results in a condition called sickle cell anaemia.

 

119. Select the correct match.

(a) Haemophilia – Y linked

(b) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait

(c) Sickle cell anaemia - autosomal recessive trait, chromosome - 11

(d) Thalassemia – X linked

Ans. (c) Sickle cell anaemia - autosomal recessive trait, chromosome - 11

Explanation: 

120. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and is sterile?

(a) Down’s syndrome

(b) Turner’s syndrome

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(d) Edward syndrome

Ans. (c) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Explanation: Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs by the union of an abnormal XX egg and a normal Y sperm or a normal X egg and abnormal XY sperm. The individual has 47 chromosomes (44 + XXY). Such persons are sterile males with undeveloped testes, mental retardation, sparse body hair, long limbs and with some female characteristics such as enlarged breast, i.e., gynaecomastia.

121. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(a) only daughters

(b) only sons

(c) only grandchildren

(d) both sons and daughters.

Ans. (d) both sons and daughters

Explanation: Woman acts as a carrier when she has the X-linked condition on one of her X-chromosomes. Both son and daughter inherit X-chromosome from mother. Hence, one of the two daughters will be carrier and one of the two sons will be diseased. It can be explained by the given cross :

XcX   ................x...................XY

carrier woman              normal man

......XXc.............XcY.................XX....................XY

Carrier girl....Diseased boy....normal girl......normal boy

where XC is the X-chromosome carrying the gene for the condition.

122. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

(a) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.

(b) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.

(c) Sickle cell anaemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.

(d) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.

Ans. (b) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.

Explanation: Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to point mutation in which at the 6th position of beta globin chain, glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Thus, it is a qualitative defect in functioning of globin molecules. Thalassemia is caused due to either mutation or deletion which ultimately results in reduced rate of synthesis of one of the globin chains that make up haemoglobin. Hence, it is a quantitative defect in functioning of globin molecules.

123. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non- disjunction is

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(b) Turner’s syndrome

(c) Sickle cell anaemia

(d) Down’s syndrome.

Ans. (d) Down’s syndrome.

Explanation: Down’s syndrome is an autosomal aneuploidy, caused by the presence of an extra-chromosome number 21. Both the chromosomes of the pair 21 pass into a single egg due to non disjunction during oogenesis

124. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

(a) 0 (b) 0.5

(c) 0.75 (d) 1.      

Ans. a. 0

Explanation:  Genotype of colour blind man – XcY 

Genotype of woman homozygous – XX for normal woman

Parents:    XcY   .....     XX

Offsprings:   XcX  .... XcX...............XY..... XY

............all carrier daughters .....all normal sons...

Hence, there is zero (0) probability of their son to be colour-blind.

125. Pick out the correct statements.

(1) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(2) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(3) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(4) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

(a) (1), (3) and (4) are correct.

(b) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

(c) (1) and (4) are correct.

(d) (2) and (4) are correct.

Ans. (b) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

Explanation:  Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It can be transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are carriers of the gene (or heterozygous).

126. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

(a) Chromosomal disorder

(b) Dominant gene disorder

(c) Recessive gene disorder

(d) X-linked recessive gene disorder

Ans. (d) X-linked recessive gene disorder

Explanation: Haemophilia is a sex-linked disease. It occurs due to the presence of a recessive sex linked gene h, which is carried by X-chromosome.

127. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour blindness in her family. What is the probability of their grandson being colour blind ?

(a) Nil

(b) 0.25

(c) 0.5

(d) 1

Ans. b. 0.25

Explanation:  When a colour blind man (XcY) marries a normal woman (XX), all of their daughters are carriers and all of their sons are normal, as shown in following figure: 


XcY  x   XY

XXc ............................XY

carrier daughter.........normal son

When the carrier daughter (XXc) is married to a normal man, the probability of their son being colour blind is 0.25, as shown in following figure:

XXc.....x...........XY

XX.............................XY..................XXc...........................XcY

normal daughter....normal son... carrier daughter..... colour blind son

From above crosses, it is clear that the probability of occurrence of colour blindness in the grandson of a colour blind man and a normal woman is 0.25.

Q128. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree.

(i)



(ii)



(iii)



(iv)


(a) Autosomal recessive

(b) X-linked dominant

(c) Autosomal dominant

(d) X-linked recessive

Ans. a. autosomal recessive

Explanation: Autosomal recessive traits are the traits which are caused by recessive autosomal genes when present in homozygous condition. The given pedigree can be explained as: 

129. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to

(a) fusion of two ova and one sperm

(b) fusion of two sperms and one ovum

(c) formation of abnormal sperms in the father

(d) formation of abnormal ova in the mother.

Ans. (d) formation of abnormal ova in the mother.

Explanation: The abnormal baby has an extra X chromosome, thus it must have been produced by fusion of abnormal XX ovum with a normal X sperm. Abnormal XX sperm is not possible because, males have XY genotype, and if produce abnormal sperms, then XY sperms and O sperms will be produced. If fusion of multiple gametes have occurred (either two ova with one sperm or two sperms with one ovum), then the human baby will have triploid genotype not the trisomy of sex chromosomes.

130. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?

(a) 25%

(b) 0%

(c) 50%

(d) 75%

Ans. (c) 50%

Explanation: It is given that the man had colour blind father, i.e., man’s genotype would be XY. Now, the woman had a colourblind mother and normal father, thus her genotype would be XcX. A cross between them can be represented as below.

Parents:      XcX             x         XY

Progeny: XcX..................XX......................XcY....................XY

......carrier female..normal femlae...colour blind male....normal male...

Therefore, 50% of male children of this couple will be colour blind.

131. A human female with Turner’s syndrome

(a) has 45 chromosomes with XO

(b) has one additional X chromosome

(c) exhibits male characters

(d) is able to produce children with normal husband.

Ans. a. has 45 chromosomes with XO.

Explanation: A human female with Turner’s syndrome has single sex chromosome i.e., 44 + X0 (45). Such females are called sterile females with rudimentary ovaries. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility. Thus, any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development.

132. Select the incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia.

(a) It is a dominant disease.

(b) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected.

(c) It is a sex-linked disease.

(d) It is a recessive disease.

Ans. (a) it is a dominant disease.

Explanation: Haemophilia is a sex linked disease which is also known as bleeder's disease as the patient will continue to bleed even from a minor cut since he or she does not possess the natural phenomenon of blood clotting due to absence of antihaemophilac globulin or factor VIII (haemophilia - A) and plasma thromboplastin factor IX (haemophilia-B, Christmas disease) essential for it. 

133. If both parents are carriers for thalassaemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child? 

(a) 25%

(b) 100%

(c) No chance

(d) 50%      

Ans. a. 25%

Explanation: 

Tt x  Tt

TT: Tt: tt

1:   2:   1

25% normal: 50% carriers: 25% affected.

Q134.Which one is the incorrect statement with regard to the importance of pedigree analysis?

(a) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information.

(b) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive.

(c) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome.

(d) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait.

Ans. (a) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information.

135. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to

(a) three ‘X’ chromosomes

(b) three copies of chromosome 21

(c) monosomy

(d) two ‘Y’ chromosomes. (Karnataka NEET 2013)

136. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour- blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour-blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?

(a) 100% (b) Zero percent

(c) 25% (d) 50% (2012)

137. Represented here is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of trait in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

(a) Phenylketonuria     (b) Sickle cell anaemia

(c) Haemophilia (d) Thalassemia

(Mains 2012)

138. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex?

(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.

(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper.

(c) XO condition in humans as found in Turner’s syndrome, determines female sex.

(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.


139. Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct?

(a) Mating between relatives

(b) Unaffected male

(c) Unaffected female

(d) Male affected (2010)

140. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.


 

(a) The female parent is heterozygous.

(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.

(c) The trait under study could not be colour blindness.

(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant.

(Mains 2010)

141. Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(a) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism.

(b) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population.

(c) Baldness is a sex-limited trait.

(d) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity. (2009)

142. Sickle-cell anaemia is

(a) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin

(b) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

(c) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

(d) an autosomal linked dominant trait.

Ans. b

Explanation; Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal hereditary disorder in which erythrocytes become sickle shaped. It is caused by the formation of abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobin-S. Haemoglobin-S is formed when 6th amino acid of β-chain, i.e., glutamic acid is replaced by valine due to substitution. It occurs due to a single nucleotide change (A  T) in the β-globin gene of coding strand. In the normal β-globin gene the DNA sequence is CCTGAGGAG, while in sickle-cell anaemia the sequence is CCTGTGGAG.

143. Study the pedigree chart given below. What does it show?

(a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.

(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible.

(c) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia.

(d) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria.

Ans. (a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.

Explanation: This chart shows inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait like phenylketonuria. An autosomal recessive trait may skip a generation. It appears in case of marriage between two heterozygous individuals (Aa × Aa = 3 Aa + 1 aa), a recessive individual with hybrid (Aa × aa = 2 Aa + 2 aa) and two recessive (aa × aa = all aa). Phenylketonuria is an inborn, autosomal, recessive metabolic disorder in which homozygous recessive individual lacks the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. The heterozygous individuals are normal but carriers.

144. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?

(a) Erythroblastosis fetalis - X-linked

(b) Down’s syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY

(d) Colour blindness - Y-linked

Ans.(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY

Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder in which there are three sex chromosomes, XXY, rather than the normal XX or XY. The number of autosomes are normal, i.e., 44. Affected individuals are apparently male but are tall and thin, with small testes, failure of normal sperm production (azoospermia), enlargement of the breasts (gynaecomastia) and absence of facial and body hairs

145. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s choreaare

(a) virus-related diseases

(b) bacteria-related diseases

(c) congenital disorders

(d) pollutant-induced disorders. (2006)

146. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be

(a) all colour blind

(b) all normal visioned

(c) one-half colour blind and one-half normal

(d) three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth normal. (2006)

147. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the

(a) trisomy of 21st chromosome

(b) fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm

(c) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

(d) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5.

(2006)

148. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because

(a) it is controlled by dominant genes

(b) it is controlled by recessive genes

(c) it is not a fatal disease

(d) it provides immunity against malaria. (2006)

149. A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?

(a) Sex-linked dominant

(b) Sex-linked recessive

(c) Sex-limited recessive

(d) Autosomal dominant (2005)

150. A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterised by

(a) superfemaleness (b) triploidy

(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Down’s syndrome.

(2005)

 

50 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology

 

151. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because

(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy

(b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation

(c) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation

(d) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation.

Ans. 

Explanation: A human female with Turner’s syndrome has single sex chromosome i.e., 44 + X0 (45). Such females are called sterile females with rudimentary ovaries. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility. Thus, any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development

152. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

(a) Cystic fibrosis

(b) Thalassaemia

(c) Haemophilia

(d) Cretinism

Ans. (d) Cretinism

Explanation: Cretinism occurs due to hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive trait. Cystic fibrosis is also a recessive autosomal disorder resulting in mucus clogging in lungs. Thalassemia involves a gene mutation in the polypeptide chains of haemoglobin.

153. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy

(a) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision

(b) must be colour blind

(c) must have normal colour vision

(d) will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele.

Ans. (a) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision

Explanation: Colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait. Since the woman’s father was colour blind, she should be carrier of the colour blind gene (XcX). When she marries to colour blind man their progeny could be

Parent:   XcX      X    XcY

Carrier woman         Colourblind man

Progeny: ..XcXc...............XcX...............XcY........................XY

.....colour blind girl.....carrier girl....colour blind son.......Normal son

154. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for haemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh? 

(a) 1/8

(b) 1/32

(c) 1/16

(d) 1/4

Ans. (a) 1/8

Explanation: The male human is heterozygous for autosomal gene A and B and also hemizygous for haemophilic gene h, then his genotype will be AaBbXhY because haemophilia is a sex linked trait that is present on X-chromosome.   So, the total number of gametes will be abXh, abY, ABXh, ABY, AbXh, AbY, aBXh, aBY. So the proportion of abXh sperm will be 1/8.

155. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind is married to a normal man. The sons would be

(a) 75% colour-blind    

(b) 50% colour-blind

(c) all normal

(d) all colour-blind.

Ans. (b) 50% colour-blind

Explanation: In question, where the genotype of the other parent is not mentioned then that should be considered normal. Colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait

(i) To find out the genotype of a woman.

Her father is colour-blind so his genotype is XcY and her mother is normal so her genotype is XX.

XX ×         XcY

XXc   XXc         XY      XY

carrier girl       Normal boy

(ii) When this woman marries normal man

so 50% of the sons would be colour blind.

XXc   x    XY

XX ............   XY.............XcX...............XcY

Normal girl normal boy   carrier girl     colour blind boy

156. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome humans are always

(a) lethal

(b) sub-lethal

(c) expressed in males

(d) expressed in females.

Ans.(c) expressed in males

Explanation: The recessive genes located on X-chromosome of humans are always expressed in males, e.g., colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait in which the eye fails to distinguish red and green colours. The gene for the normal vision is dominant. The normal gene and its recessive allele are carried by X-chromosomes. In females colour blindness appears only when both the sex chromosomes carry the recessive gene (XcXc). The females have normal vision but function as carrier if a single recessive gene for colour blindness is present (XXc). However, in human males the defect appears in the presence of a single recessive gene (XcY) because Y-chromosome of male does not carry any gene for colour vision.

157. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of

(a) sex linked traits

(b) sex limited traits

(c) sex influenced traits

(d) sex determining traits.

Ans. (c) sex influenced traits

Explanation: Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder in which there are three sex chromosomes, XXY, rather than the normal XX or XY. The number of autosomes are normal, i.e., 44. Affected individuals are apparently male but are tall and thin, with small testes, failure of normal sperm production (azoospermia), enlargement of the breasts (gynaecomastia) and absence of facial and body hairs.

158. Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease ?

(a) Thalassaemia

(b) Sickle cell anaemia

(c) Pernicious anaemia

(d) Leukaemia

Ans.(b) Sickle cell anaemia

Explanation; Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal hereditary disorder in which the erythrocytes become sickle shaped. The disorder or disease is caused by the formation of an abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobin-S. Carriers of the sickle cell anaemia gene are protected against malaria because of their particular haemoglobin mutation; this explains why sickle cell anaemia is particularly common among people of African origin. The malarial parasite has a complex life cycle and spends part of it in red blood cells and feeds on haemoglobin. Both sickle-cell anaemia and thalassemia are more common in malaria areas, because these mutations convey some protection against the parasite. In a carrier, the presence of the malaria parasite causes the red blood cell to rupture, making the Plasmodium unable to reproduce. Further, the polymerisation of Hb affects the ability of the parasite to digest Hb in the first place. Therefore, in areas where malaria is a problem, people’s chances of survival actually increase if they carry sickle cell anaemia. Thus, sickle-cell anaemia is a potential saviour from malaria.

159. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder?

(a) 100 %

(b) 75 %

(c) 50 %

(d) 25 %

Ans. (c) 50 %

Explanation: Down’s syndrome is the example of autosomal aneuploidy. Here, an extra copy of chromosome 21 occurs. As it is an autosomal disease, the offspring produced from affected mother and normal father should be 50 %.

160. Christmas disease is another name for

(a) haemophilia B

(b) hepatitis B

(c) Down’s syndrome

(d) sleeping sickness.

Ans.(a) haemophilia B

Explanation: Haemophilia B, a type of haemophilia is also known as christmas disease. It is due to deficiency of a blood coagulation factor, the christmas factor (factor IX). Christmas was the person (20th century) in whom the factor was first identified. Haemophilia B is a defect of the blood which prevents its clotting.

161. A diseased man marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five sons. All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is

(a) sex linked dominant 

(b) sex linked recessive

(c) sex limited character 

(d) autosomal dominant.

Ans. (a) sex linked dominant 

Explanation: In the inheritance pattern of sex chromosomes, X-chromosome of father always passes to daughter and X-chromosome of mother passes to son. As the father is diseased and all the girls inherit it, it is obvious the disease is sex-linked. The mother is not a carrier (as evident from the fact that no son is diseased). Thus, the gene is dominant and expresses even in heterozygous condition.

162. Which of the following is a correct match?

(a) Down’s syndrome - 21st chromosome

(b) Sickle cell anaemia - X-chromosome

(c) Haemophilia - Y-chromosome

(d) Parkinson’s disease - X and Y chromosome

Ans. (a) Down’s syndrome - 21st chromosome

Explanation: Down’s syndrome (Mongolian Idiocy, Mongolism) is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number 21. Sickle cell anaemia is not a sex linked (i.e., X linked) disease but an autosomally inherited recessive trait.  Haemophilia is X-linked but not holandric/Y-linked.  Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease. It is not at all hereditary.

163. Sickle cell anaemia induce to

(a) change of amino acid in -chain of haemoglobin

(b) change of amino acid in -chain of haemoglobin

(c) change of amino acid in both  and  chains of haemoglobin

(d) change of amino acid either  or  chains of haemoglobin.

Ans. (b) change of amino acid in -chain of haemoglobin

Explanation: 

164. Mongolian Idiocy due to trisomy in 21st chromsome is called

(a) Down’s syndrome

(b) Turner’s syndrome

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(d) Triple X syndrome.

Ans. (a) Down’s syndrome

Explanation: Down’s syndrome (Mongolian Idiocy, Mongolism) is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number 21. Sickle cell anaemia is not a sex linked (i.e., X linked) disease but an autosomally inherited recessive trait.  Haemophilia is X-linked but not holandric/Y-linked.  Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease. It is not at all hereditary.

165. In Drosophila, the XXY condition leads to femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to Klinefelter’s syndrome in male. It proves

(a) in human beings Y chromosome is active in sex determination

(b) Y chromosome is active in sex determination in both human beings and Drosophila

(c) in Drosophila Y chromosome decides femaleness

(d) Y chromosome of man have genes for syndrome.

Ans. (a) in human beings Y chromosome is active in sex determination

Explanation: Y-chromosome does not play any role in determination of sex in Drosophila. In human being, XXY is phenotypically male with underdeveloped testes, gynecomastia and often mental retardation. It is caused by the union of a non-disjunct XX egg and sperm and a normal X egg and abnormal XY sperm. This indicates that in human being Y chromosome is active in sex determination.

166. A marriage between normal visioned man and colour blind woman will produce offspring

(a) colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughter

(b) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughter

(c) normal males and carrier daughters

(d) colour blind sons and carrier daughters.

Ans. (d) colour blind sons and carrier daughters.

Explanation: Colour blindness is produced by a recessive gene which lies on X chromosome. A marriage between normal visioned man (XY) and colour blind woman (XcXc), results in colour blind sons (XcYc) and carrier daughters (XXc).

Colour blind mother                      x                     normal father

XcXc                                                                  XY

XX XcX                                                             XY XY

carrier daughters                                          colour blind sons

167. Haemophilic man marries a normal woman. Their offspring will be

(a) all haemophilic

(b) all boys haemophilic

(c) all girls haemophilic

(d) all normal.

Ans. d. all normal

Explanation: Haemophilia is caused by a recessive gene located in the X-chromosome. When a haemophilic man (XhY) marries a normal woman (XX), produces carrier girls (XXh) and normal boys (XY), i.e. all their offspring will be normal.


Normal woman x Haemophilic Man

XX                   x                   XhY

XhX  XhX                            XY XY

carrier daughters              normal sons

168. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the ‘X’ chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be?

(a) 50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and 50% normal sons.

(b) 50% haemophilic daughters (carrier) and 50% colour blind daughters (carrier).

(c) All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour- blind.

(d) Haemophilic and colour-blind daughters.

Ans. b. 50% haemophilic daughters (carrier) and 50% colour blind daughters (carrier)

Explanation: Both diseases are produced by a recessive gene which lies on the X-chromosomes. A woman having both gene for haemophilia on one X-chromosome and gene for colour blindness on another X-chromosome will have genotype XhXc.


XX                         x                        XhY

normal woman                      Haemophilic man


XhX    XhX                                  XY     XY

carrier daughters                         Normal sons

169. Mental retardation in man, associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to

(a) moderate increase in Y complement

(b) large increase in Y complement

(c) reduction in X complement

(d) increase in X complement.

Ans. d. increase in X complement

Explanation: In humans, sex chromosomal abnormality is due to gene carried on X-chromosome. Increase in X-complement leads to Klinefelter’s syndrome. The individiuals of Klinefelter’s syndrome has 47 chromosomes (44 + XXY), this condition caused by a chromosome aneuploidy. Affected males have an extra X sex chromosome. It is formed by the union of an XX egg and normal Y sperm or normal X egg and abnormal XY sperm. Affected males are almost always effectively sterile, although advanced reproductive assistance is sometimes possible and some degree of language learning impairment and mental retardation may be present. In adults, possible characteristics vary widely and include little to no signs of affectedness, a lanky, youthful build and facial appearance, or a rounded body type with some degree of gynecomastia (increased breast tissue).

170. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal skin pigmentation was an albino. What is the probability that their second child will also be an albino?

(a) 50%

(b) 75%

(c) 100%

(d) 25%

Ans. d.

Explanation: Albinism is caused by the absence of the enzyme tyrosinase which is essential for the synthesis of the pigment from dihydroxy-phenyl-alanine. The gene for albinism (a) does not produce the enzyme tyrosinase but its normal allele (A) does. Thus, only homozygous individual (aa) is affected by this disease. Albinos (individuals with albinism) lack dark pigment melanin in the skin, hair and iris. Although albinos have poor vision yet they lead normal life. On the basis of principles of simple recessive inheritance, the probability of albinic child from a normally pigmented parents, will be 1/4 or 25%.

171. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from

(a) gynandromorphism

(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(c) Down’s syndrome

(d) Turner’s syndrome.

Ans. b. Klinefelter's syndrome

172. In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X-chromosome?

(a) Turner’s syndrome 

(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(c) Down’s syndrome

(d) Haemophilia

Ans. b. Klinefelter's syndrome

173. A person whose father is colour blind marries a lady whose mother is daughter of a colour blind man.  Their children will be

(a) all sons colour blind

(b) some sons normal and some colour blind

(c) all colour blind

(d) all daughters normal.

Ans. d. All daughters normal.

Explanation: In question where the genotype of the other parent is not mentioned then that should be considered as normal.

(i) to find out the genotype of person

His father is colour blind, so, genotype = XcY  .......(i)

His mother is normal = XX      .......(ii)

XcY x XX 

Offsprings = XcX, XcX, XY, XY

As all sons will be normal therefore, the genotype of the person will be XY       .....(iii)

(ii) to find the genotype of lady

Father's genotype - XY                              ......(iv)

Her mother is a daughter of colourblind father and normal mother

XcY x XX 

XcX, XcX, XY, XY

so the mother of lady would be carrier having genotype XcX            .....(v)

Performing cross between (iv) XY and (v) XcX to find out lady's genotype XY x XcX 

XcX, XX, XcY, XY

as 50% daughter are carrier and 50% daughter are normal. So the lady can be normal or carrier having genotype XX XcX respectively                    .... (vi)

Now considering both the genotype of the lady and the genotype of the person, the result would be as follows

XY x XcX 

XcX, XY, XX, XcY


XY x XX

XX, XX, XY, XY


About cases show that if mother (lady) is carrier then options (a) and (c) are not true. Option (b) is true and option (d) all daughters normal (though phenotypically) is also true. If mother is normal then options (a), (b) and (c) are not true and option (d) is true so from the cases, it is concluded that option (d) is true.


174. A genetically diseased father (male) marries with a normal female and gives birth to 3 carrier girls and 5 normal sons. It may be which type of genetic disease?

(a) Sex-influenced disease

(b) Blood group inheritance disease

(c) Sex-linked disease

(d) Sex-recessive disease

Ans. c. Sex-linked disease

175. An abnormal human male phenotype involving an extra X-chromosome (XXY) is a case of

(a) Edward’s syndrome

(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(c) intersex

(d) Down’s syndrome.

Ans. b. Klinefelter's syndrome.

Explanation: 

176. The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Y-chromosome, are

(a) autosomal genes

(b) holandric genes

(c) completely sex-linked genes

(d) mutant genes

Ans. b. holandric genes. 

Explanation: Despite differences in morphology, the XY chromosomes are homologous and synapse during zygotene. It is because they have two parts, homologous and differential.  Homologous regions of the two help in pairing.  They carry same genes which may have different alleles.  The differential region of Y-chromosome carries only Y-linked or holandric genes. i.e. testis determining factor (TDF).

177. Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of which enzyme?

(a) Tyrosinase (b) Xanthine oxidase

(c) Catalase (d) Fructokinase

Ans. a. Tyrosinase

178. The colour blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females because

(a) the Y-chromosome of males have the genes for distinguishing colours

(b) genes for characters are located on the sex- chromosomes

(c) the trait is dominant in males and recessive in females

(d) none of these.

Ans. b. genes for characters are located on the sex-chromosome.

Explanation.

179. Of both normal parents, the chances of a male child becoming colour blind are

(a) none

(b) possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision

(c) possible only when father’s mother was colour blind

(d) possible only when mother’s father was colour blind.

Ans. d. possible only when mother's father was colour blind 

Explanation: The chance of a male child becoming colour blind are possible only when mother's father was colour blind. It is an example of criss cross inheritance.  If a cross is made between two sexes differing in certain characters, in such a way that character of one sex remains hidden in the opposite sex of F1 generation, but is passed on to the same sex in F2 generation, it is said to exhibit criss cross inheritance. 

180. Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophiliac while half the daughters are carriers. The gene is located on

(a) X-chromosome of father

(b) Y-chromosome of father

(c) one X-chromosome of mother

(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother.

Ans. c. one x-chromosome of mother.

Explanation: The gene is located on one x-chromosome of mother.  Cross between a haemophilic carrier female XhX and normal male would yield 50% of the sons being haemophilic and 50% of the daughter are carriers. 

181. A colour blind mother and normal father would have

(a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters

(b) colour blind sons and daughters

(c) all colour blind

(d) all normal.

Ans. a. colour blind sons and normal/ carrier daughters

182. Down’s syndrome is due to

(a) crossing over

(b) linkage

(c) sex-linked inheritance

(d) non-disjunction of chromosomes

Ans. d. non-disjunction of chromosomes

183. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes

(a) Down’s syndrome

(b) Kinefelter’s syndrome

(c) Turner’s syndrome

(d) Edward’s syndrome.

Ans. C. Turner's syndrome

Explanation: In human beings, 45 chromosomes/ single X/ XO abnormality causes Turner's syndrome.  Individuals having a single X chromosome 2A + XO (45) have female sexual differentiation but ovaries are rudimentary. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility.  Thus, any unbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development. 

184. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when

(a) her mother and maternal grand father were colour blind

(b) her father and maternal grand father were colour blind 

(c) her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision

(d) parents have normal vision but grand parents were colour blind.

Ans. b. her father and maternal grand father were colour blind.

Explanation: A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when her father and maternal grand father were colour blind. The genotype of the mother was to be either XcXc or XcX and that of father XcY so that the daughter becomes colour blind.

185. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is

(a) XO (b) XY

(c) XX (d) XXY

Ans. b. XY

Explanation: - In Down's syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is XY.  Down syndrome is an autosomal birth defect caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number 21 (three instead of two number 21 chromosomes or trisomy 21)

186. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a

(a) recessive character carried by Y-chromosome

(b) dominant character carried by Y-chromosome

(c) dominant trait carried by X-chromosome

(d) recessive trait carried by X-chromosome.

Ans. d. recessive trait carried by X-chromosome. 

Q187. Which one is a hereditary disease?

(a) Cataract

(b) Leprosy

(c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria

Ans.d.  

Explanation: Phenylketonuria arises due to an inherited error of metabolism caused by a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.  

Q188. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind. The probability of their daughter becoming colour blind is

(a) 0% (b) 25%

(c) 50% (d) 75%.

Ans. a. 0%

Explanation: The chances of daughter becoming colour blind arises only when the father is also colour blind. 






































Q.No.1 Mendel's last law is 

a.segregation b.dominance c.independent assortment d.polygenic inheritance

Ans. c.Independent Assortment

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Q.No.2 The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called

a.multiple alleles b.alleles c.alloloci d.paramorphs

Ans. b.alleles

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Q.No.3 The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is

a.3:1 b.1:2:1 c.9:3:3:1 d.2:1

Ans. a.3:1

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Q.No.4 Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions?

a. TTxtt b.Ttxtt c.TTxTt d.ttxtt

Ans.b

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Q.No.5 A pure tall pea was crossed with a pure dwarf pea.  All the plants of F1 were found to be tall.  This is due to 

a.law of dominance b.disappearance of factor for dwarfness in F1 generation c.segregation of factors

d.coordination

Ans.a.law of dominance

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Q.No.6 The F2 generation of a cross produced identical phenotypic and genotypic ratio.  It is not an expected Mendelian result, and can be attributed to 

a.independent assortment b.linkage c.incomplete dominance d.none

Ans.c.incomplete dominance

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Q.No.7 The monohybrid genotypic ration 1:2:1 in F2 generation indicates

a.segregation b.independent assortment c.dominance d.incomplete dominance

Ans.a.segregation

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Q.No.8 Mendel selected pea plant as material for his experiments because

a.It is an annual plant with comparatively short life cycle. b.the flowers are self-pollinated.

c.the number of seeds produced is quite large. d. all of the above

Ans.d.all of the above


Q.No.9 Which of the following crosses would produce a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in F2?

a.AB x AB b.Ab x ab c.Ab x Ab d.ab x ab

Ans.c.Ab x Ab


Q1. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

a. 4

b. 2

c. 14

d. 18

Ans. c. 14

Explanation: - Mendel conducted artificial pollination or cross pollination experiments using several true-breeding pea lines.  He selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for one character with contrasting traits. Some of the contrasting traits selected were smooth or wrinkled seeds, yellow or green seeds, inflated (full)or constricted green or yellow pods and tall or dwarf plants. 

Q2. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?

a. Trichomes-Glandular or non-glandular

b. Seed-Green or yellow

c. Pod- Inflated or constricted

d. Stem-Tall or dwarf

Ans. a. Trichomes-Glandular or non-glandular

Explanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments

i. seed shape: Round Wrinkled

ii. seed cotyledon colour: Yellow Green

iii. Flower colour: violet white

iv. pod shape: inflated constricted

v. pod colour: green yellow

vi. flower position: axial terminal 

vii. stem height: tall dwarf

Q3. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridisation experiments?

a. 1840-1850

b. 1857-1869

c. 1870-1877

d. 1856-1863

Ans. d. 1856-1863

Explanation: Mendel carried out hybridisation experiments on garden pea for 7 years from 1856-1863.

Q4. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

a. seed shape

b. flower position

c. seed colour

d. pod length

Ans. d. pod length

Explanation: Mendel considered the following characters of pea in his experiments

i. seed shape: Round Wrinkled

ii. seed cotyledon colour: Yellow Green

iii. Flower colour: violet white

iv. pod shape: inflated constricted

v. pod colour: green yellow

vi. flower position: axial terminal 

vii. stem height: tall dwarf 

Q5. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?

a. 8

b. 7

c. 5

d. 6

Ans. b. 7 

Explanation: 

Q6. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups

a. The gene I has three alleles

b. a person will have only two of the three alleles

c. when IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar

d. Allele i does not produce any sugar

Ans. c. when IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

Explanation: ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.  The gene I has three alleles, IA, IB and i.  The alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different form of the sugar while allele i does not produce any sugar. Because humans are diploid organisms, each person possesses any two of the three I gene alleles. When IA and IB are present together they both express their own type of sugars, because of co-dominance.

Q7. An Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with white flower and in F1 generation all pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed the F2 generation showed white, red and pink flowers.  Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

a. Law of segregation does not apply in this experiment

b. This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance

c. Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance

d. ratio of F2 is 1/4(red): 2/4(pink) : 1/4 (white)

Ans. a. is incorrect. 

Explanation: Law of segregation applies in this case as when pink flowers obtained in F1 are selfed then red and white flowers are obtained in F2 which indicates that there is no mixing of gametes. 





Molecular basis of Inheritance 

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Q.No.1 The two strands of DNA are held together by

a.peptide bonds b.phosphodiester bonds c.hydrogen bonds d.S - S bonds

Ans.

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Q.No.2 Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by

a.X-ray crystallography b.electron microscope c.ultracentrifuge d.light microscope

Ans.

*

Q.No.3 Chargaff's rules are applicable to

a.single stranded RNA b.single stranded DNA and RNA c.single stranded DNA d.double stranded DNA

Ans.

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Q.No.4 One turn of DNA possesses

a.one base pair b.two base pairs c.five base pairs d.ten base pairs

Ans.

*

Q.No.5 Which of the following is correct for Watson and Crick's model of DNA. It is duplex with 

a.10 base pairs and 3.4 A distance for every turn b.10 base pairs and 3.4 A distance for each turn of spiral

c.20 base pairs and 34A for each turn d.none

Ans.

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Q.No.6 Information flow or central dogma of modern biology is

a.RNA - Proteins - DNA b.DNA - RNA - RNA c.RNA - DNA - Proteins d.DNA - RNA - proteins

Ans. d.DNA - RNA - proteins

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Q.No.7 Nucleosome is 

a.intron interrupted DNA b.double helix of DNA c.negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octomer d.satellite DNA

Ans.

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Q.No.8 Genetic information is carried out by long chain molecule made up of 

a.amino acids b.enzymes c.nucleoids d.histone proteins

Ans.

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Q.No.9 Histones are rich in 

a.alanine and glycine b.lysine and arginine c.histidine and serine d.cysteine and tryosine

Ans.

*

Q.No.10 In meselson and stahl's experiments, heavy DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in 

a.CsOH b.NH4Cl c.15NH4Cl d.CsCl gradient



Q1. Which of the following statements is correct

a. adenine pairs with thymine through two H bonds

b. adenine pairs with thymine through one H bond

c. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H bonds

d. Adenine does not pair with thymine. 

Ans. a. adenine pairs with thymine through two H bonds

Explanation: A=T

Q2. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

a. cytosine and thymine

b. adenine and thymine

c. adenine and guanine

d. guanine and cytosine

Ans. c. adenine and guanine

Explanation: purines - adenine and guanine 

pyrimidine - cytosine and thymine

Q3. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates that

a. DNA replication is occurring

b. the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre

c. the DNA double helix is exposed

d. transcription is occuring 

Ans. b. the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre

Explanation: Histones helps in packaging of DNA  In eukaryotes.  DNA packaging is carried out with the help of positively charged basic proteins called histones.  Histones are of five types - H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.  The association of H1 histone with nucleosome indicates that DNA remains in its condensed form. Nucleosome is the unit of compaction.  H1 is attached over the linker DNA.  The linker DNA, consisting of H1 histone connects two adjacent nucleosomes.  They together constitute chromatosome.  It gives rise to a chromatin fibre after further condensation. 

Q4. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded.  17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.  The percentage of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA area. G17%, A33%, T33%b. G8.5%, A50%, T24.5%c. G34%, A24.5%, T24.5%d. G17%, A16.5%, T32.5%Ans. a G17%, A33%, T33%Explanation: According to Chargaff's rule, the amount of adenine is always equal to that of thymine and the amount of guanine is always equal to that of cytosine i.e. A=T and G=C.  Also, the purines and pyrimidines are always in equal amounts i.e. A+G=T+C.  Now, given dsDNA has 17% cytosine and hence guanine will be also 17%.  So, A+T must be 66%, therefore, percentage of adenine or thymine would be 66/2 = 33%. Q5. Fill in the blanks............A...............B...............proposed by..........DNA  mRNA  Protein                Ca. A-Transcription, B-Translation, C-Francis Crickb. A-Translation, B-Extension, C-Rosalind Franklinc. A-Transcription, B-Replication, C-James Watsond. A-Translation, B-Transcription, C-Ervin Chargaff.Ans. A-Transcription, B-Translation, C-Francis CrickExplanation - The expression of the genetic material occurs normally through the production of proteins. This involves two consecutive steps. These are transcription and translation. The DNA codes for the production of messenger RNA (mRNA) during transcription. Messenger RNA carries coded information to ribosomes. The ribosomes read this information and use it for protein synthesis. This process is called translation. F.H.C. Crick described this unidirectional flow of information in 1958 as the ‘central dogma of molecular biology’.Q6. DNA →C→ RNA →B→Protein→Pr̥oposed→AThe figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C.(a)A-Maurice Wilkins, B-Transcription, C-Translation(b) A-James Watson, B-Replication, C-Extension(c) A-Erwin Chargaff, B-Translation, C-Replication(d) A-Francis Crick, B-Translation, C-TranscriptionAns. d. A-Francis Crick, B-Translation, C-Transcription Explanation: A-Transcription, B-Translation, C-Francis CrickExplanation - The expression of the genetic material occurs normally through the production of proteins. This involves two consecutive steps. These are transcription and translation. The DNA codes for the production of messenger RNA (mRNA) during transcription. Messenger RNA carries coded information to ribosomes. The ribosomes read this information and use it for protein synthesis. This process is called translation. F.H.C. Crick described this unidirectional flow of information in 1958 as the ‘central dogma of molecular biology’.Q7. What are the structures called that give an appearance as ‘beads-on-string’ in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope?(a) Genes(b) Nucleotides(c) Nucleosomes(d) Base pairsAns. c. NucleosomesExplanation: Nucleosomes    appear    as    ‘beads-on- string’ in the chromosome when viewed under electron microscope. The beads in ‘beads-on-string’ arrangement are complexes of histones and DNA. The bead plus the connecting DNA leads to the next bead from the nucleosome. Nucleosome is the fundamental unit of organisation on which the higher-order packaging of chromatin is built. The bead of each nucleosome contains eight histone molecules in which two copies each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 are found.Q8. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?(a)Pea(b) Mucor(c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV Ans. Explanation: DNA........Transcription.......mRNA......Translation......ProteinThis one-way flow of information from DNA to mRNA and then to protein is called the central dogma of molecular biology by F.H.C. Crick (1958). But later on two American workers H. Temin and D. Baltimore reported that DNA is also formed from RNA in retroviruses, e.g., HIV. This is called reverse transcription or teminism, i.e.,Protein. This reverse transcription occurs under the influence of reverse transcriptase enzyme. So, HIV viruses does not follow central dogma.Q9. The 3 - 5 phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join(a) one DNA strand with the other DNA strand(b) one nucleoside with another nucleoside(c) one nucleotide with another nucleotide(d) one nitrogenous base with pentose sugar.Ans. c. one nucleotide with another nucleotideExplanation: The phosphodiester bonds is formed between the phosphate group, which is connected to carbon 5 of the sugar residue of one nucleotide and carbon 3 of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide.Q10. Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?(a) Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division.(b) The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell.(c) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides.(d) DNA consists of core of eight histones.Ans. b.Explanation: Insulin gene is found in every body cell but is not expressed in all cells. It is nucleosome which consists of a core of eight histones. DNA is composed of nucleotides. Centriole is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division.11. In the DNA molecule,(a) the proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism(b) there are two strands which run anti- parallel-one in 5  3 direction and other in 3  5(c) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal(d) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5  3 direction.Ans. b. there are two strands which run anti- parallel-one in 5  3 direction and other in 3  5Explanation: A DNA molecule has two unbranched complementary strands which are spirally coiled. The two chains are antiparallel, i.e., they run parallel but in opposite direction. One chain has the polarity 5  3 whereas, other has 3  5. Both are held together by hydrogen bonds between their bases, i.e., A = T and G  C and the amount of adenine is equal to thymine and guanine equals to cytosine. The base ratio A + T / G + C may vary from one species to another but is constant for a given species. The purine and pyrimidines are always in equal amount (A + G = T + C) but A + T is not necessarily equal to G + C.12. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?(a) Guanine, Adenine - Purines(b) Adenine, Thymine - Purines(c) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines(d) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines Ans. b. UracilExplanation: The two DNA chains are held together by hydrogen bonds between their nitrogenous bases. Adenine (A), a purine of one chain lies exactly opposite thymine (T), a pyrimidine of the other chain. Similarly, cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite guanine (G), a purine. Three hydrogen bonds occur between cytosine and guanine (C  G) at positions 1, 2, and 6 and two hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine (A = T) at positions 1 and 6.13. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately(a) 2 nm (b) 20 nm(c) 0.34 nm (d) 3.4 nm.Ans. d. 3.4nm Explanation: DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is the largest macromolecule made of the helically twisted two antiparallel polydeoxyribonucleotide strands held together by hydrogen bonds. The two strands of DNA are called DNA duplex. It has a diameter of 20Å. One turn spiral has a distance of 34 Å or 3.4 nm.14. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that(a) one strand turns clockwise(b) one strand turns anti-clockwise(c) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position(d) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).Ans. d. the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)Explanation: DNA is a type of nucleic acid that forms genetic material in many organisms. It consists of a long polymer of nucleotides which transcribes the coded information in the form of a triplet code of nucleotides in mRNA. It is a double helical molecule. The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions to one another with the hydrogen bonds between them. One strand of DNA has 5-3 direction and the other strand has 3-5 direction. So they are antiparallel. This direction is determined by the presence of a free phosphate or OH group at the end of the strand.15. Which one of the following makes use of RNA template to synthesise DNA?(a) DNA polymerase(b) RNA polymerase(c) Reverse transcriptase(d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase Ans. c. Reverse transcriptaseExplanation: DNA to RNA = DNA dependent RNA polymeraseDNA to DNA = DNA dependent DNA Polymerase RNA to DNA = Reverse transcriptase Q16. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?(a) Lipase (b) Protease(c) Endonuclease (d) ExonucleaseAns. c. EndonucleaseExplanation: Endonucleases hydrolyse the internal phosphodiester bond. Exonucleases cleave the terminal nucleotides. Lipase digest fats and proteases break down proteins.Q17. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species:(a) A + G / C + T (b) T + C / G + A(c) G + C / A + T (d) A + C / T + G. Ans.Explanation:  Q.18. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?(a) 20% (b) 40%(c) 30% (d) 60%Ans. c. 30%Explanation: In a DNA, the percentage of thymine is 20%. So, as it pairs with adenine, it is also 20%. So, the guanine and cytosine together forms 60% of DNA and hence, guanine is 30%.Q19. Length of one loop of B-DNA(a) 3.4 nm (b) 0.34 nm(c) 20 nm (d) 10 nm.Ans. a. 3.4nmExplanation: B-DNA is an antiparallel double helix. The double strand or duplex is coiled plectonemically in right handed fashion around a common axis like a rope stair case twisted in a spiral. The coiling produces alternate major and minor grooves. One turn of spiral has a distance between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 nm.

Q.47 During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and A) RNA PRIMERS are involvedB) is facilitated by telomiraseC)moves in one direction of the siteD) Moves in birectional wayAns. DExplanation: Prokaryotic DNA acts as a single replicating unit called replicon. Each replicon has a particular region where replication starts.  It is called origin of replication or ori. In the region of ori, there is a particular nucleotide sequence called autonomic replicating sequence or ARS. Replication proceeds bidirectionally from each ori.  A replication fork is produced on each side of ori. Replication will continue till a replication fork meets another replication fork. Q 48 Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesise new strands is calledA) dispersiveB) conservativeC) semi-conservative D) non- conservativeAns. CExplanation: The method of DNA replication is semi-conservative.  According to semi-conservative model proposed by Watson and Crick, each strand of the two double helix formed would have one old and one new strand. So, the parental identity is conserved upto half extent and hence DNA replication is semi-conservation. Q.49 There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork . These proteins areA) DNA LigaseB) DNA topoisomerase IC)DNA gyraseD) DNA polymerase IAns. BExplanation: DNA is a double helical molecule and it opens to form a replication fork for its replication. The two strands of DNA are joined with the help of H-bonds between the strands.  Topoisomerases are specialised to cause nicks or breaks in the double helix and helps separate the DNA stands.  Helicase unwinds the DNA helix from that nick caused by the topoisomerase and this separates the two strands.  DNA gyrase introduces negative supercoils in DNA strands of prokaryotes.  DNA polymerase adds nucleotide units to the 3' end of a DNA chain.  DNA ligase joins the ends of DNA. Q.50 During DNA replication, the strands separate byA) DNA polymeraseB) topoisomeraseC) unwindase/helicaseD) giraseAns. CExplanation: During DNA replication, the strands separate by unwindase/ helicase.  The molecule is unwound by DNA unwinding proteins called helicase. Th helicases II and III get attached to the lagging strand and protein to the leading strand. The formation of bands is avoided by single stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB).Q51. Experimental material in the study of DNA replication has beenA) Escherichia coliB) Neurospora crassaC) PnemococusD) Drosophila melanogasterAns. AExplanation: Explanation material in the study of DNA replication ahs been Escherichia coli.  E. coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow in 14N medium.  The two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have different density and do not resemble parent DNA.  Meselson and Stahl, 1958 by using 14N and 15N confirmed that the replication of DNA in E. coli is semi-conservative in natureQ52. DNA replication is A) conservative and discontinuousB) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuousC) semi-conservative and discontinuous D)conservativeAns. BExplanation. semi-conservative as new double strand comprises one old and one new.  Semi-discontinuous due to okazaki fragments (lagging strand). Q53. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcriptionA) DNA ligaseB) DNA helicaseC) DNA polymeraseD) RNA polymeraseAns. DQ54. What will be theQ 55. Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed products:1. RNA polymerase I    (i) tRNA2.  RNA polymerase II  (ii) rRNA3. RNA polymerase III   (iii) hnRNAselect the correct option(a) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii     (b) 1-i,2-ii,3-iii(c) 1-ii,2-iii,3-i    (d) 1-iii,2-ii,3-iAns. c. Q56. Select the correct statement(a) Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage"(b) Punnett square was developed by a British  scientist(c) spliceosomes take part in translation(d) Transduction  was discovered by S. Altman Ans. bExplanation: Franklin Stahl along with Matthew Meselson proved semi-conservative mode of replication in DNA. Punnett square was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. Spliceosome formation is part of post-transcriptional change in eukaryotes.  Transduction was discovered by Joshua Lederberg and Norton Zinder in the bacterium Salmonella. Q57. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?A) AGGUAUCGCAU B)UGGTUTCGCATC) ACCUAUGCGAU D) UCCAUAGCGUAAns. AExplanation: Coding strand and mRNA have same nucleotide sequence except 'T' - Thymine is replaced by 'U' - Uracil in mRNA.Q. 58. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?A) tRNA B) mRNAC) miRNA D) rRNAAns. DExplanation: rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is the most abundant of all types of RNA (70-88%).  Hence, it will be present in highest amount. Percentage of tRNA and mRNA is 15%  and 2-5% respectively.  miRNA (micro RNA) are 21-22 bp long RNA that bring degeneration of mRNA. Q59. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of(a) fungi (b) animals(c) bacteria(d) plantsAns. CExplanation: Spliceosomes help in removal of introns. They will not occur in prokaryotes because prokaryotes do not have introns and thus, processing does not require splicing of mRNA.Q. 60 The  equivalent of a structural gene is(a) muton (b) cistron(c) operon (d) recon Ans. BExplanation: Cistron (or gene) is a length of DNA that contains the information for coding a specific polypeptide chain or a functional RNA molecule (i.e. transfer RNA or ribosomal RNA).  Hence, cistron is a unit of function.  Currently such a gene is called structural gene. Q61. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?(a) 5S rRNA  (b) 18S rRNA(c) 23S rRNA (d) 5.8 S rRNAAns. CExplanation: 23S rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria.  Q62. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the(a) template strand (b) coding strand(c) alpha strand (d) antistrand Ans. AExplanation: The strand of DNA on which RNA polymerase binds to catalyse transcription is called template strand. It is also known as master or antisense strand. It has the polarity of 5' - > 3'.Q63.  Direction of RNA Synthesis = Direction of reading of the template DNA stranda. 5' - 3'=3'-5'b. 3'-5' = 5' - 3'c. 5'-3' = 5'-3'd. 3'-5' = 3' - 5'Ans. a. 5' - 3'=3'-5'Explanation: RNA polymerase initiates and extends the RNA (chain elongation) and function always in 5' to 3' direction.  The structural component of DNA has 3' to 5' polarity.  It is also called template DNA strand or antisense (-) strand. Q64. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is calleda. loopingb. inducing c. slicing d. splicingAns. d.splicing Explanation: Q65: If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?a. TTAGUb. UAGACc. AACTGd. ATCGUAns.  b. UAGACExplanation: - Q66. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in a. lysosomesb. nucleolusc. nucleoplasmd. ribosomesAns. b. nucleolusExplanation: Nucleolus is the centre for synthesis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) that forms ribosomal subunits.  Ribosomal proteins migrate to the nucleolus from their assembly sites in the cytoplasm and are packaged into ribonucleoproteins.  These return to the cytoplasm where they become mature ribosome particles.Q67 which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?a. the inducerb. a terminator c. a promoterd. the structural geneAns. a. the inducerExplanation: Q68 Removal of RNA polymerase III form the nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis ofa. tRNAb. hnRNAc. mRNAd. rRNAAns. a.tRNAExplanation:Q69 Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?a.  5S rRNAb. snRNAc. hnRNAd. 23S rRNAAns. d. 23S rRNAExplanation: - The 23S rRNA is a component of the large prokaryotic (bacterial cell) subunit (50S).  The ribosomal peptidyl transferase activity resides in this rRNA and acts as a ribozyme (catalytic RNA).  The eukaryotic cells, the 60S (28S component) ribosome subunit contains the peptidyl transferase component and acts as the ribozyme. Q70.  In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the a. ribosomesb. nucleusc. dictyosomesd. ERAns. b. nucleus.