Total 03 Papers


Paper 1 - GS & GK of Constitution of India and Machinery of Government, Practice and Procedures in Parliament and Knowledge of RTI Act, 2005. - 2 Hrs. - 150 Marks - Objective 


Paper 2 - Procedure and Practice in the Govt of India Secretariat and attached offices and General Financial and Service Rules duly taking into account the requirement of relevant categories of services. - 2 Hrs - 150 Marks - Objective


Paper 3 -  Noting and Drafting, Precis Writing - 3 Hrs - 200 Marks - Subjective 


Paper 4 - Evaluation of record of Service - 100 

1. Under the RTI Act, 2005, who appoints the Chief Information Commissioner at the central level?


A) The President

B) The Prime Minister

C) A committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

D) The Parliament


Answer: C


2. What is the maximum time within which information must be provided if it concerns the life and liberty of a person?


A) 30 days

B) 15 days

C) 48 hours

D) 7 days


Answer: C


3. Which of the following is not a valid ground for rejecting an RTI application under the Act?


A) Disclosure of information that prejudices India's sovereignty and integrity

B) Information already available in the public domain

C) Request for disclosure of personal information without a larger public interest

D) Information pertaining to commercial interests of private firms


Answer: D


4. Who is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the RTI Act at the central level?


A) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)

B) Chief Information Commission

C) Ministry of Law and Justice

D) Comptroller and Auditor General


Answer: A


5. Which section of the RTI Act specifies exemptions from disclosure of information?


A) Section 4

B) Section 6

C) Section 8

D) Section 12


Answer: C


6. Which of the following information cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature under the RTI Act?


A) Cabinet papers

B) Personal information

C) Information related to trade secrets

D) Information that cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature


Answer: D


7. What is the maximum penalty for a Public Information Officer (PIO) for not furnishing information on time?


A) ₹5,000

B) ₹10,000

C) ₹25,000

D) ₹50,000


Answer: C


8. The RTI Act applies to all states and union territories of India except:


A) Sikkim

B) Goa

C) Jammu and Kashmir

D) Ladakh


Answer: C (prior to the abrogation of Article 370)


9. Under Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, what are public authorities required to publish proactively?


A) Their financial records

B) Monthly reports

C) Details of their functions, duties, and powers

D) Minutes of all meetings


Answer: C


10. A citizen residing outside India can seek information under the RTI Act through:


A) Indian embassies or consulates

B) A proxy applicant

C) Online portals only

D) They are not allowed to file RTI applications


Answer: A


11. Which section of the RTI Act provides for the protection of whistleblowers?


A) Section 20

B) Section 4

C) Section 11

D) The RTI Act does not have explicit provisions for whistleblowers


Answer: D


12. Under which of the following circumstances can third-party information be disclosed?


A) When it is older than 10 years

B) If the third party consents or the public interest outweighs the harm to their privacy

C) With a court order only

D) When requested by a government official


Answer: B


13. Appeals against the decision of a PIO must be made to the:


A) Central Information Commission

B) Appellate Authority within the department

C) State Information Commission

D) High Court


Answer: B


14. Which of the following provisions pertains to the fee for filing RTI applications?


A) Section 7(1)

B) Section 5(3)

C) Section 6(1)

D) Section 27


Answer: C


15. The RTI Act was enacted to promote:


A) Transparency and accountability in public administration

B) Effective implementation of government schemes

C) Freedom of speech and expression

D) Reduction in corruption


Answer: A


16. Which of the following cannot be considered a "public authority" under the RTI Act?


A) Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) substantially funded by the government

B) Private companies

C) State-owned corporations

D) Panchayati Raj Institutions


Answer: B


17. What is the prescribed format for filing an RTI application?


A) Predefined application form provided by the department

B) Any written or electronic communication

C) Oral submission before the PIO

D) There is no prescribed format


Answer: B


18. The second appeal under the RTI Act can be filed before the:


A) District Magistrate

B) Central or State Information Commission

C) High Court

D) Supreme Court


Answer: B


19. The RTI Act mandates suo moto disclosure of information by public authorities under which section?


A) Section 8

B) Section 3

C) Section 4

D) Section 7


Answer: C


20. Which of the following was the first country to enact a law on Freedom of Information?


A) United States

B) India

C) Sweden

D) United Kingdom


Answer: C

Here are all the questions consolidated for easy copying:


Set 1: Advanced RTI MCQs


1. When a Public Information Officer (PIO) transfers an RTI request to another public authority, the response time for the new PIO is counted from:

A. The date the original application was received by the first PIO

B. The date the application was transferred to the new PIO

C. The date the new PIO receives the application

D. The date the applicant submits an appeal

Answer: C. The date the new PIO receives the application

2. If the information sought is partly covered under exemptions and partly not, the PIO should:

A. Reject the entire application under Section 8

B. Provide only the non-exempt information

C. Seek approval from the appellate authority before responding

D. Deny the information citing Section 9

Answer: B. Provide only the non-exempt information

3. A public authority delays providing information beyond the stipulated timeline due to a genuine technical issue. What penalty can the CIC impose?

A. No penalty, as the delay was unintentional

B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

C. Disciplinary action against the PIO without a monetary penalty

D. ₹100 per day, capped at ₹10,000

Answer: B. ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000, even for unintentional delays

4. Can a PIO refuse information if the RTI applicant has not addressed their application to the correct authority?

A. Yes, the application is invalid if addressed to the wrong authority

B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

C. Yes, but only after informing the applicant in writing

D. No, the applicant must be advised to submit a fresh application

Answer: B. No, the PIO must transfer the application to the correct authority within 5 days

5. Under Section 8(1)(j), “personal information” can be disclosed if:

A. It pertains to the personal details of a government official

B. The applicant submits a notarized affidavit

C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

D. The information is more than 5 years old

Answer: C. There is a larger public interest in disclosing the information

6. What should the PIO do if the information sought is in a language not understood by the applicant?

A. Deny the information

B. Provide the information in the language it exists

C. Translate the information and provide it in a language understood by the applicant

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on the preferred language

Answer: B. Provide the information in the language it exists

7. In case of incomplete information provided by the PIO, the first appellate authority can:

A. Impose a penalty on the PIO

B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

C. Recommend disciplinary action against the PIO

D. Refer the case to the Central Information Commission

Answer: B. Direct the PIO to provide the remaining information

8. If the requested information is held by multiple public authorities, the PIO should:

A. Provide the applicant with the contact details of all relevant authorities

B. Transfer the application to each of the relevant public authorities

C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

D. Seek clarification from the applicant on which authority to approach

Answer: C. Provide only the part of the information available with their authority

9. If an RTI request involves third-party information, the PIO must:

A. Reject the request under Section 8(1)(j)

B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

C. Disclose the information after informing the third party

D. Disclose the information only after CIC approval

Answer: B. Seek the written consent of the third party before disclosure

10. Under the RTI Act, a PIO can deny information under Section 9 if:

A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

B. The applicant is unwilling to pay the prescribed fees

C. The information pertains to personal grievances

D. It causes inconvenience to the public authority

Answer: A. It leads to a breach of copyright of a private publisher

11. Which of the following types of information is barred from disclosure under Section 24?

A. Minutes of a Cabinet meeting

B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

C. Internal memos of a public authority

D. Annual reports of an intelligence agency

Answer: B. Intelligence inputs affecting national security

12. The role of the CIC or SIC in appeals is to:

A. Reinterpret laws and issue directions on policy

B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

C. Frame new rules and regulations for the RTI Act

D. Approve or deny requests for classified information

Answer: B. Review the decisions of public authorities and impose penalties if necessary

13. An RTI application can be rejected if:

A. The information sought is available online

B. The applicant does not specify the format in which information is needed

C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

D. The information involves administrative expenses

Answer: C. The applicant refuses to pay the prescribed fee

14. If a PIO fails to appear for a hearing before the CIC, the Commission can:

A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

B. Close the case in favor of the applicant

C. Recommend the suspension of the PIO

D. Allow the appellate authority to handle the matter

Answer: A. Summon the PIO and impose a monetary penalty

15. How can the First Appellate Authority (FAA) handle repetitive RTI requests on the same subject?

A. Deny the appeal outright

B. Refer the matter to the CIC

C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

D. Penalize the applicant

Answer: C. Dispose of the appeal stating that the matter has already been addressed

16. An RTI applicant demands information that requires data collation. The PIO should:

A. Deny the request citing excessive workload

B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

C. Seek clarification from the applicant to reduce the scope

D. Reject the application outright

Answer: B. Provide the information if it can be collated with reasonable effort

17. Under Section 20(1), a PIO can be penalized for:

A. Denying information for reasons of national interest

B. Failing to maintain proper records as per Section 4

C. Refusing to accept an RTI application

D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

Answer: D. Delaying the provision of information without reasonable cause

18. If a PIO provides false information under the RTI Act, the CIC/SIC can:

A. Impose a penalty of ₹250 per day up to ₹25,000

B. Recommend departmental action against the PIO

C. Both A and B

D. File a criminal case against the PIO

Answer: C. Both A and B

19. An applicant requests information that is available in the public domain. The PIO should:

A. Provide the information after charging the prescribed fee

B. Deny the information stating that it is already in the public domain

C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

D. Charge a penalty for wasting the public authority’s time

Answer: C. Redirect the applicant to the source of the information

20. Can an applicant file a complaint directly with the CIC without filing the first appeal?

A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness

B. No, the first appeal is mandatory

C. Yes, but only with CIC approval

D. No, complaints cannot bypass the FAA

Answer: A. Yes, in cases of non-receipt of information or PIO non-responsiveness


Feel free to copy and use these questions! Let me know if you’d like more.

THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005 


ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS 


CHAPTER I PRELIMINARY (Section 1 & 2)


1. Short title, extent and commencement. 

2. Definitions. 


CHAPTER II RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES  Section (3 to 11)


3. Right to information. 

4. Obligations of public authorities. 

5. Designation of Public Information Officers. 

6. Request for obtaining information. 

7. Disposal of request. 

8. Exemption from disclosure of information. 

9. Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases. 

10. Severability. 

11. Third party information. 


CHAPTER III THE CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 12-14)


12. Constitution of Central Information Commission. 

13. Terms of office and conditions of service. 

14. Removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner 


CHAPTER IV THE STATE INFORMATION COMMISSION (Section 15-17)


15. Constitution of State Information Commission. 

16. Term of office and conditions of service. 

17. Removal of State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner. 


CHAPTER V POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES  (Section 18-20)


18. Powers and functions of Information Commissions. 

19. Appeal

20. Penalties



CHAPTER VI MISCELLANEOUS (Section 21-31)


21. Protection of action taken in good faith. 

22. Act to have overriding effect. 

23. Bar ofjurisdiction of courts. 

24. Act not to apply to certain organisations. 

25. Monitoring and reporting. 

26. Appropriate Government to prepare programmes. 

27. Power to make rules by appropriate Government. 

28. Power to make rules by competent authority. 

29. Laying of rules. 

30. Power to remove difficulties. 

31. Repeal. 

THE FIRST SCHEDULE. 

THE SECOND SCHEDULE 


THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005 ACT 

No. 22 OF 2005 

[15th June, 2005.] 


An Act to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. 


WHEREAS the Constitution of India has established democratic Republic; AND 


WHEREAS democracy requires an informed citizenly and transparency of information which are vital to its functioning and also to contain corruption and to hold Governments are their instrumentalities accountable to the governed; 


AND WHEREAS revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests including efficient operations of the Governments, optimum use of limited fiscal resources and the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information; 


AND WHEREAS it is necessary to harmonise these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal; 


Now, THEREFORE, it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens who desire to have it. 


BE it enacted by Parliament in the Fifty-sixth Year of the Republic of India as follows:— 


CHAPTER I 

PRELIMINARY 


1. Short title, extent and commencement.—

(1) This Act may be called the Right to Information Act, 2005. 

(2) It extends to the whole of India***. 

(3) The provisions of sub-section (1) of section 4, sub-sections (1) and (2) of section 5, sections 12, 13, 15,16, 24, 27 and 28 shall come into force at once, and the remaining provisions of this Act shall come into force on the one hundred and twentieth day of its enactment. 


2. Definitions.— In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,— 


(a) "appropriate Government" means in relation to a public authority which is established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly— 

(i) by the Central Government or the Union territory administration, the Central Government; 

(ii) by the State Government, the State Government; 


(b) "Central Information Commission" means the Central Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 12; 


(c) "Central Public Information Officer" means the Central Public Information Officer designated under sub-section (1) and includes a Central Assistant Public Information Officer designated as such under sub-section (2) of section 5; 


(d) "Chief Information Commissioner" and "Information Commissioner" mean the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioner appointed under sub-section (3) of section 12; I. The words "except the State of Jammu and Kashmir" omitted by Act 34 of 2019, s. 95 and the Fifth Schedule (w.e.f. 3 1-10-2019). 3 (e) "competent authority" means— (i) the Speaker in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly and the Chainnan in the case of the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State; (ii) the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court; (iii) the Chief Justice of the High Court in the case of a High Court; (iv) the President or the Governor, as the case may be, in the case of other authorities established or constituted by or under the Constitution; (v) the administrator appointed under article 239 of the Constitution; (/) 'information" means any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks. contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force; (g) "prescribed" means prescribed by rules made under this Act by the appropriate Government or the competent authority, as the case may be; (Ii) "public authority" means any authority or body or institution of self- government established or constituted— (a) by or under the Constitution; (b) by any other law made by Parliament; (c) by any other law made by State Legislature; (ci) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any— (i) body owned, controlled or substantially financed; (ii) non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government; (i) "record" includes— (a) any document, manuscript and file; (b) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (c) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or not); and (ci) any other material produced by a computer or any other device; (I) "right to information" means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to— (i) inspection of work, documents, records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records; (iii) taking certified samples of material; (iv) obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device; (k) "State Information Commission" means the State Information Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 15; 

TABLE OF PRECEDENCE
1. President2. Vice-President3. Prime Minister4. Governors of States within their respective States5. Former Presidents5A. Deputy Prime Minister6. Chief Justice of India Speaker of Lok Sabha7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union. Chief Ministers of States within their respective States Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission Former Prime Ministers Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealthcountries accredited to India Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States Governors of States outside their respective States)9. Judges of Supreme Court9A Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission Chief Election Commissioner Comptroller & Auditor General of India10. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha Deputy Chief Ministers of States Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha Members of the Planning CommissionMinisters of State of the Union {and any other Minister in the Ministry of Defence for defencematters}11. Attorney General of India. Cabinet Secretary. Lieutenant Governors within their respective Union Territories12. Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of full General or equivalent rank.13. Envoys Extraordinary and Ministers Plenipotentiary accredited to India.14. Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures within their respective States. Chief Justices of High Courts within their respective jurisdictionsPage 2 of 515. Cabinet Ministers in States within their respective StatesChief Ministers of Union Territories and Chief Executive Councillor, Delhi within their respectiveUnion Territories Deputy Ministers of the Union16. Officiating Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of Lieutenant General or equivalent rank.17. Chairman, Central Administrative Tribunal. Chairman, Minorities Commission Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled TribesChief Justices of High Courts outside their respective jurisdictionsPuisne Judges of High Courts within their respective jurisdictions18. Cabinet Ministers in States outside their respective States Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures outside their respective States Chairman, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures within their respective StatesMinisters of State in States within their respective StatesMinisters of Union Territories and Executive Councilors, Delhi, within their respective UnionTerritories.Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of Delhi MetropolitanCouncil within their respective Union Territories.19. Chief Commissioners of Union Territories not having Councils of Ministers, within theirrespective Union Territories. Deputy Ministers in States within their respective States.Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Deputy Chairman ofmetropolitan Council Delhi, within their respective Union Territories.20. Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures, outside their respective states. Ministers of State in States outside their respective States Puisne Judges of High Courts outside their respective jurisdictions.21. Members of Parliament.22. Deputy Ministers in State outside their respective States23. Army Commanders/ Vice-Chief of the Army Staff or equivalent in other servicesChief Secretaries to State Governments within their respective StatesCommissioner for Linguistic MinoritiesCommissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled TribesMembers, Minorities CommissionMembers, National Commission for Scheduled CastesMembers, National Commission for Scheduled TribesOfficers of the rank of full General or equivalent rankSecretaries to the Government of India (including officers holding this office ex-officio).Secretary, Minorities Commission.Secretary, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission.Secretary to the President.Secretary to the Prime Minister.Secretary, Rajya Sabha/Lok SabhaSolicitor General Vice-Chairman, Central Administrative TribunalPage 3 of 524. Officers of the rank of Lieutenant General or equivalent rank.25. Additional Secretaries to the Government of India.Additional Solicitor GeneralAdvocate Generals of States.Chairman, Tariff CommissionCharge d’ Affairs and Acting High Commissioners a pied and ad interimChief Ministers of Union Territories and Chief Executive Councillor, Delhi outside theirrespective Union TerritoriesChief Secretaries of State Governments outside their respective States.Deputy Comptroller and Auditor GeneralDeputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Deputy Chairman,Delhi Metropolitan Council, outside their respective Union Territories.Director, Central Bureau of InvestigationDirector General, Border Security Force.Director General, Central Reserve Police.Director, Intelligence BureauLieutenant Governors outside their respective Union Territories. Members, Central Administrative TribunalMembers, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices CommissionMembers, Union Public Service CommissionMinisters of Union Territories and Executive Councillors, Delhi, outside their respective UnionTerritories.Principal Staff Officers of the Armed Forces of the rank of major General or equivalent rankSpeakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of Delhi, MetropolitanCouncil, outside their respective Union Territories26. Joint Secretaries to the Government of India and officers of equivalent rank. Officers of the rank of Major-General or equivalent rankNOTESNote 1 The order in this Table of Precedence is meant for State and Ceremonial occasions andhas no application in the day-to-day business of Government.Note 2 Persons in the Table of Precedence will take rank in order of the number of the articles.The entries in the same article are arranged alphabetically. Those included in the samearticle will take precedence inter se according to date of entry into that article. However,where the dignitaries of different States and Union Territories included in the same articleare present at a function outside their States or Union Territories and there is difficulty inascertaining their dates of entry, they may be assigned precedence inter se in thealphabetical order of the name of States and Union Territories concerned after those whoseprecedence is determined according to date of entry into that article.Note 3 In Article 7, former Prime Ministers will take precedence over the Cabinet Ministers of theUnion and the Leaders of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. The ChiefMinisters of States within their respective States will take precedence over the CabinetMinisters of the Union in official functions held in the respective States.Note 4 In Article 8: – (a) Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners ofCommonwealth countries accredited to India will en bloc rank above Governors of Statesoutside their respective States;Page 4 of 5 (b) Governors of States outside their respective States will en bloc rank above Chief Ministersof States outside their respective States.Note 5 The Ministry of External Affairs may assign appropriate ranks to foreign dignitaries andIndian Ambassadors, High Commissioners and Ministers Plenipotentiary during their visitto India.Note 6 Notwithstanding the procedure laid down in Note 2, the rank inter se and precedence of thepersons in Article 10 shall be assigned in the following order: -
(1) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.(2) Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha.(3) Ministers of State of the Union and any other Minister in the Ministry of Defence fordefence matters.(4) Deputy Chief Ministers of States.(5) Members of Planning Commission.However, the Deputy Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States will alwaysrank below all other dignitaries figuring in this article.Note 7 The Chairmen of State Legislative Councils will rank above the Speakers of LegislativeAssemblies in cases where they were elected on the same date.Note 8 When Members of Parliament are invited en bloc to major State functions, the enclosuresreserved for them should be next to the Chief Justice, Speaker of the Lok Sabha,Ambassadors etc.Note 9 Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories and Chairman of the DelhiMetropolitan Council, Delhi, will take precedence over Ministers and ExecutiveCouncillors, included in the same article.Note 10 In Article 23: -
(a) Secretaries in the Ministry of External Affairs other than the Foreign Secretary, betweenthemselves, will take precedence in the order of their seniority in Grade-I of the IndianForeign Service and both of them will take precedence after the Foreign Secretary.(b) Members of the Minorities Commission and the Scheduled Castes and Schedule TribesCommission will always take precedence over the Secretaries of these Commissions;(c) In official functions held at Delhi/New Delhi, Army Commanders/Vice Chief of the ArmyStaff or equivalent in other Services will always rank after Secretaries to the Governmentof India.Note 11 In Article 25: -(a) Additional Secretaries in the Ministry of External Affairs, among themselves, will takeprecedence in the order of their seniority in Grade- II of the Indian Foreign Service;(b) Additional Solicitor General will take precedence above the Advocate General of States;(c) Lieutenant Governors will take precedence over the Chief Ministers and Chief ExecutiveCouncillor, Delhi, and the latter will take precedence over Speakers of LegislativeAssemblies and Chairman, Metropolitan Council, Delhi;Page 5 of 5(d) Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories and Deputy Chairman ofDelhi Metropolitan Council will take precedence after Ministers of Union Territories andExecutive Councillors, Delhi.Note 12 For the purpose of Article 26, the posts equivalent to the posts of Joint Secretaries to theGovernment of India will be determined by the Ministry of Home Affairs. (K.C. Madappa)Secretary to the President

- Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry/ Department is:

Controller General of Accounts in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound Management Accounting System.

- CPSEs are those companies which are under the administrative control of Central Ministry/ Department and where the equity held by the Central Government is - more than 50%.

- Statutory Bodies - NIA, NHRC, Lokpal, Lokayukta, CVC, CIC

- Repository of technical information and also advises the department on various aspects of matters dealt by them - Attached Offices

- To facilitate quicker decision-making, channels of submission should not be more than - four stages

- Secretary - Administrative Head of the Ministry/ Dept, Principal Advisor to the Minister on all policy and the administration within the Ministry/ Dept

- Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary/ Joint Secretary - One or more wings may be established with Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary / Joint Secretary, in-charge of each wing under the charge of Secretary.

- Director/ Deputy Secretary - holds the charge of a Secretariate Division and is responsible for the disposal of Government business dealt within the Division under the charge.

- Under Secretary - in-Charge of the Branch in the Ministry/ Dept consisting of one or more Sections.

-Section Officer - head of the section 

- Subsistence grant means a monthly grant made to a Government servant who is not in receipt of pay or leave salary.

Leave Rules: - 

Extent: - 


Right to leave

Effect of dismissal, removal / resignation: - 

Commutation 

Max amount of continuous leave

Acceptance of another service on leave


rest everything is on https://dopt.gov.in/sites/default/files/ccs_leave_rules_0.pdf

2018

2016 - 17

Central Secretariat Manual of Office Procedure

Q1 RTI includes the right to

a. inspect works, documents, records

b. take notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records

c. take certified samples of material

d. obtain information in forms of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts


a. a,b and c

b. a,b and d

c. a, c and d

d. All

Ans. All of the above

Explanation: The Right to Information Act passed in 2005 extends to all states and union territories of India excepting the state of J&K. This act gives Indian citizens the right to access information about any public authority or institution, including non-government organisations substantially funded by the government. 


The main aims of the RTI Act are to provide clarity of the information to the citizens of India, to contain corruption, and to promote accountability in the working of every public authority.


Right includes:

a. Inspect works, documents, records

b. Take notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records

c. Take certified samples of material

d. Obtain information in form of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts.


Q2. Which of the following bodies comes under the purview of Right to Information (RTI)?

i. Narcotics Control Bureau

ii. Enforcement Directorate

iii. Research Analysis Wing


a. i and iii

b. ii and iii

c. i and ii

d. none

Ans. d. none

Explanation: NCB has been declared an exempt organisation under Section 24 (1) of the RTI Act, 2005

- Under Section 24 read with 2nd Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005, the Directorate of Enforcement was exempted from disclosure of information.

- Research and Analysis Wing is exempted from disclosures under RTI.


RTI - 

RTI Act, 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India giving Indians access to Government records

- Under the terms of the Act, any person may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or Instrumentality of State) which is expected to reply expeditiously or within thirty days.

- The following are exempted from the purview of the Act

^ Matters pertaining to national sovereignty and integrity

^ Information expressly prohibited to be published by a court of law

^ Information regarding commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property etc.


Q3 If the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, it is called _______


i. contempt

ii. holding information 

iii. timeout

iv. deemed rejection


Ans. iv. deemed rejection


Explanation: Deemed rejection - 

if the Public Information Officer fails to give information to the informant within the period specified under the RTI Act, 2005 it is called deemed rejection.


Q4 Which of the following does not come under the definition of 'information' under the RTI Act, 2005?

a. log books

b. circulars

c. file notings in the process

d. data material held in any electronic form

Ans. c. file notings in the process

Explanation: file notings do not come under the definition of "Information" under the RTI Act, 2005.

Section 2 (f) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines "information" as any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advice, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force. 


Q5 Out of the following statements, which is not correct about the RTI Act, 2005?

i. The RTI Act came into force from October 13, 2005

ii. Any citizen may request information from a Public Authority (both Govt and Private)

iii. Reply for information asked can be given within 30 days.

iv. There is a nominal application fee that are needs to pay to get information under the RTI application.

v. For getting information, applicant has to pay Rs.10/- per page of information for Central Govt Departments. 


a. i, ii and v

b. ii & v only

c. iii and v only

d. ii, iii, iv, and v only

Ans. i, ii and v only

Explanation: RTI is an act that sets out rules and regulations regarding citizen's right to information. It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.


RTI Act, 2005: - 

-The RTI Bill was passed in Parliament and came into force from October 12, 2005

-The basic objective of RTI Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense.

-any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority i.e. government authority

- the information can be obtained within 30 days from the date of request in normal case and in the matter of life or liberty of a person, the information can be obtained within 48 hours from the time of the request.

-Certain information is prohibited under Section 8

-An appeal against the decision of the CIC or SIC can be made to an officer who is senior in rank

-There is a nominal application fee that is needed to be paid to get information under the RTI Application

-The nominal fee to get the information is Rs.10 for every application as per Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, 2005


Q5 Which of the following statements are true regarding the objectives of RTI Act, 2005? 

i. To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

ii. To set up system and mechanisms that facilitate people's easy access to information

iii. To promote transparency and accountability in governance

iv. to minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in government and decision making


a. ii, iii, and iv

b. i, ii, iii and iv

c. i, ii, iii

d. i, ii, and iv

Ans. b. i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation: RTI Act 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India, giving citizens of India access to records of the Central Government and State Governments

-The Act applies to all States and Union Territories of India, except the state of Jammu and Kashmir - which is covered under a State-level law

-It came into force on 12 October 2005


Objectives of RTI Act 2005 are:

-To operationalise the Fundamental Right to Information

-To set up system and mechanisms that facilitates people's easy access to information

-To promote transparency and accountability in governance

-To minimise corruption and inefficiency in public offices and ensure people participation in governance and decision-making.


Q7 Which of the following is not true with regard to the RTI Act, 2005?

a. The objective behind RTI is to maintain transparency in government operations

b. RTI is a key for empowering citizens

c. Containment of corruption in Government units is the important objective of the RTI Act

d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India


Ans. d. RTI Act appoints NITI Aayog responsible for channelising, regulating and maintaining the RTI Act in India


Explanation: In 1976, Raj Narain vs the State of Uttar Pradesh case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Information will be treated as a fundamental right under Article 19. 

-Thus the government enacted the RTI Act, 2005 which provides machinery for exercising this Fundamental Right

-All constitutional authorities, agencies, owned and controlled, also those organisations which are substantially financed by the government comes under the purview of the Act

-The act also imposes penalties if the authorities delay in responding to the citizen in the stipulated time

-The act also mandates public authorities of union government or state government, to provide timely responses to the citizens' request the information

-The act is one of the most important acts which empowers ordinary citizens to question the government and its work.

-This has been widely used by citizens and media to uncover corruption, progress in government work, expenses-related information, etc. 

~Empower citizens to question the government

~ The Act promotes transparency and accountability in the working of the government 

~The act also helps in containing corruption in the government and works for the people in a better way

~The act envisages building better-informed citizens who would keep necessary vigil about the functioning of the government machinery.

*RTI Amendment Bill, 2013 removes political parties from the ambit of the definition of public authorities and hence from the purview of the RTI Act

*The draft provision 2017 which provides for closure of case in case of death of applicant can lead to more attacks on the lives of whistleblowers

*The proposed RTI Amendment Act 2018 is aimed at giving the Centre the power to fix the tenures and salaries of State and Central Information Commissioners, which are statutorily protected under the RTI Act. The move will dilute the autonomy and independence of CIC.

~The Act proposes to replace the fixed 5 year tenure with as much prescribed by the government 




No - Leave granted to a suspended employee

90 days before from date of suspension must be reviewed 

Rule 11 Chargesheet has no witness

Rule 14 Chargesheet should contain names of witness

Country first implemented RTI - Sweden 

RTI came into force on12 Oct 2005

First RTI State - Tamil


First RTI movement was started in Rajasthan in 1994 to fight against local corruption and exploitation by Majdur Kisan Shakti Sangathan

2019-20 Paper I 
1. Which one of the following is not correct a. President appoints judges of Supreme Court in accordance with the provisions of Article 124 of the Constitution of Indiab. President appoints judges of Supreme Court on the basis of recommendations of Collegium. c. President appoints Chief Justice on recommendations of Collegiumd. No. of judges in collegium for recommending appointment of Judges in Supreme Court and High court is not same. 
Ans. a. Correct. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. The President consults with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts to make informed appointments.

Composition and Strength of the Supreme Court:Originally, the Supreme Court had eight judges (one chief justice and seven others). The Parliament has increased the number of judges over time.The current strength of the Supreme Court is 34 judges (one chief justice and 33 others).
Qualifications for Appointment as a Judge:According to Article 124(3) of the Constitution, a person can be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court if he or she: A person must be a citizen of India. ; Must have served as a judge of a High Court for at least five years or two such courts in succession; Alternatively, must have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years or two or more such courts in succession; Must be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
Appointment:-The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.-The President consults with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts to make informed appointments.
Oath of Office:-Every appointed judge must make and subscribe to an oath before the President or an appointed person.-The oath includes commitments to uphold the Constitution, sovereignty and integrity of India, and perform duties without fear or favor.
Tenure and Resignation:-There is no prescribed minimum age limit for a judge's appointment.-A judge of the Supreme Court serves until they reach the age of 65 years.-However, a judge may resign before reaching the age of 65 years by tendering their resignation to the President.
Salaries and Allowances:-Salaries, allowances, privileges, leave, and pension of Supreme Court judges are determined by Parliament.-The Salaries, Pension, and Allowances of the Supreme Court Judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Post-retirement Restrictions:-After retirement, a judge of the Supreme Court is prohibited from practicing law in any court in India or pleading before any government authority.-As per Article 128 of Indian Constitution, any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
Removal:-A judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed from office by an order of the President.-The removal process requires an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.-The grounds for removal are proven misbehaviour or incapacity.-Parliament has the authority to regulate the procedure for presenting the address and investigating and proving the misbehaviour or incapacity of a judge.-Once appointed, judges can serve until the age of 65 and cannot be removed during their tenure except for proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Collegium System for Judicial Appointments:-Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed through the collegium system.-The collegium, consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, decides on appointments, elevations, and transfers of Judges.-The term "collegium" is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution but has been established through judicial pronouncements.
How Did Collegium Evolve?
First Judges Case (1981):-It declared that the “primacy” of the CJI’s (Chief Justice of India) recommendation on judicial appointments and transfers can be refused for “cogent reasons.”-The ruling gave the Executive primacy over the Judiciary in judicial appointments for the next 12 years.
Second Judges Case (1993):-SC introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant “concurrence”.-It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in consultation with the two senior-most judges in the SC.
Third Judges Case (1998):-SC on the President's reference (Article 143) expanded the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues.
Fourth Judges Case (2015):-The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act of 2014 has replaced the collegium system of appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).-However, in 2015, the Supreme Court declared both the 99th Constitutional Amendment as well as the NJAC Act as unconstitutional and void in the fourth judge case. Consequently, the earlier collegium system became operative again.
-Who Heads the Collegium System?The SC collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the court.A High Court collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other senior most judges of that court.Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.
-What are the Procedures for Judicial Appointments?For CJI:The President of India appoints the CJI and the other SC judges.As far as the CJI is concerned, the outgoing CJI recommends his successor.In practice, it has been strictly by seniority ever since the supersession controversy of the 1970s.
-For SC Judges:For other judges of the SC, the proposal is initiated by the CJI.The CJI consults the rest of the Collegium members, as well as the senior-most judge of the court hailing from the High Court to which the recommended person belongs.The consultees must record their opinions in writing and it should form part of the file.The Collegium sends the recommendation to the Law Minister, who forwards it to the Prime Minister to advise the President.
-For Chief Justice of High Courts:The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed as per the policy of having Chief Justices from outside the respective States.The Collegium takes the call on the elevation.High Court judges are recommended by a Collegium comprising the CJI and two senior-most judges.The proposal, however, is initiated by the outgoing Chief Justice of the High Court concerned in consultation with two senior-most colleagues.The recommendation is sent to the Chief Minister, who advises the Governor to send the proposal to the Union Law Minister.
-What are the Issues Related to the Collegium System?
Exclusion of Executive:The complete exclusion of the executive from the judicial appointment process created a system where a few judges appoint the rest in complete secrecy.Also, they are not accountable to any administrative body that may lead to the wrong choice of the candidate while overlooking the right candidate.
-Chances of Favouritism and Nepotism:The collegium system does not provide any specific criteria for testing the candidate for the post of CJI because of which it leads to wide scope for nepotism and favouritism.It gives rise to non-transparency of the judicial system, which is very harmful for the regulation of law and order in the country.
-Against the Principle of Checks and Balances:The principle of check and balance is violated in this system. In India, three organs work partially independently but they keep check and balance and control on the excessive powers of any organ.However, the collegium system gives Judiciary immense power, which leaves little room for checks and poses the risk of misuse.
-Close-Door Mechanism:Critics have pointed out that this system does not involve any official secretariat. It is seen as a closed-door affair with no public knowledge of how and when a collegium meets, and how it takes its decisions.Also, there are no official minutes of collegium proceedings.
-Unequal Representation:The other area of concern is the composition of the higher judiciary, women are fairly underrepresented in the higher judiciary.
-What were Attempts to reform the Appointment System?The attempt made to replace it by a ‘National Judicial Appointments Commission’ (through Ninety-ninth Amendment Act, 2014) was struck down by the court in 2015 on the ground that it posed a threat to the independence of the judiciary.
-Way ForwardFilling up of vacancies is a continuous and collaborative process involving the executive and the judiciary, and there cannot be a time frame for it. However, it is time to think of a permanent, independent body to institutionalise the process with adequate safeguards to preserve the judiciary’s independence guaranteeing judicial primacy but not judicial exclusivity.It should ensure independence, reflect diversity, demonstrate professional competence and integrity.
2. Which provision of the Constitution of India refers to a political party?a. Election of the President of India under Article 55.b. Disqualification for membership of the Parliament under Article 102c. Superintendence, direction and control of elections under Article 324d. Defection under 10th Schedule.Ans. d. Defection under 10th schedule. In 1985, the 10th Schedule of the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India was passed by the Parliament of India to achieve this. which resulted in the introduction of the new work 'Political Party' in the Constitution of India. Political Parties got recognition in the Constitution.
3. Among the riverine major ports in India, which one of the following is the oldest port having been in existence for more than 100 years?a. Cochin portb. New Mangalore Portc. Paradip Portd. Kolkata Port. Ans. d. Kolkata Port. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port Trust of Kolkata is the oldest port among the 13 major ports of India. It was commissioned in 1870. 
4. Which one of the following statements is not correct?a. Article 370 of the Constitution of India has not been repealed.b. Article 370 of the Constitution of India is no more a part of the Constitution of India. c. Jammu & Kashmir has become a UT by amending the Constitution of Indiad. The Status of Jammu and Kashmir as a UT is not identical with that of Delhi.Ans. 
5. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can reservations for physically challenged persons be justified?a. Article 14 / Article 16b. Article 15 (4)c. Article 16 (4)d. Article 16 (6)Ans. a. Article 16(1)Article 15(4) - socially and educationally backward classes of citizens for SCs & STsArticle 16 (4) - reservations for backward classes of citizensArticle 16 (6) - 10 per cent reservation for economically underprivileged groups of citizens 
6. If any person other than the one covered under Article 30 of the Constitution of India establishes a college, which FR can be claimed by him / her for managing that institution?a. Right to equality under Article 14b. Right to one of the freedoms under Article 19(1)c. Right under Article 29d. Right under Article 41Ans. a. Article 29
7. Which one of the following FR cannot be restricted on the ground of morality?a. Right to freedom under Article 19(1)(a)b. Right under Article 25c. Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(d)d. Right under Article 26Ans. 19(1)(a) - All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.19(1)(d) - entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. Article 25 - freedom of conscience, the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion to all citizensArticle 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs
8. Right to freedom of conscience and free profession is guaranteed to a hindu that includes which of the following? 
  1. Buddhist, 2. Jaina 3. Sikh 
Select the correct answer using the code given below.a. 1&2b. 2&3c. 1&3d. 1,2&3Ans. d. 1,2&3. 
9. Consider the following statements: 1. Conferment of Padma Awards does not amount to conferring title under Article 18 of the Constitution of India2. No citizen of Inda shall accept any title from any foreign state.3. A person not being a citizen of India can be appointed by the Government of India to any office of profit and he / she can accept any title from any foreign state.Which of the above statements is / are not correct?a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. 3 onlyd. 1,2 and 3Ans. Bharat Ratna & Padma Awards are not titles under Article 18(1). Military and Academic distinctions are exempted from prohibition.-No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign state-No person who is not a citizen of India shall while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign state.
10. Which writ can be issued against a private / trust institution for failure to give effect to rules made by the Government?a. Mandamusb. Prohibitionc. Quo Warrantod. CertiorariAns. a. MandamusExplanation: Habeas Corpus - Release person detained unlawfullyMandamus - Command - perfom public dutyCertiorari - Quash inferior court order already passed Quo Warranto - what authority - restrain person holding public office not entitledProhibition - Prohibit inferior court from proceeding case with no jurisdiction
11. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides insurance coverage to farmers against losses due to which of the following ?1. Earthquakes 2. Droughts 3. Floods 4. Cyclonesa. 1 only b. 2,3,4 only c. 2 onlyd. 1,2,3,4Ans. d. 1,2,3,4Explanation - affordable premiums 2% kharif, 1.5% rabi
12. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan focuses 1. Economy 2. Infrastructure 3. Demography 4. System 5. DemandSelect correct answer a. 1,3,4b. 2,4,5c. 1,2,3,4,5d. 3 and 5Ans. c. 1,2,3,4,5Explanation - These pillars are: Economy, infrastructure, system, demography and demand.
13. Consider1. Adaptability skill involves a person's ability to adjust to change in his / her environment2. Being adaptable does not mean that in one's career one can be able to respond quickly to changing ideas, responsibilities, expectations, trends, strategies and other processes at workWhich of the above statements are correct?a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2Ans. a. 1 only
14. A standard covid specific product was launched a Corona Kavach Policy in the year 2020 to address basic health insurance coverage for public ranging from a. 50k to 5 lacb. 60k to 6 lacc. 70k to 7 lacd. 75k to 7lac 75kAns. a. 50k to 5 lac
15. Who was the first CAG of India soon after the Independence? a. Shri Anil Kumar Chandab. Shri S. Ranganathanc. Shri Girish Chandra Murmud. Shri V. Narahari RaoAns. d. V Narahari Rao
16. From 2006, the day 21 April is celebrated as a. National Science Dayb. National Ujjwala Dayc. National Panchayati Raj Dayd. Indian Civil Services DayAns. d. Indian Civil Services Day
17. Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme aims to provide direct income support to farmers who own cultivable land up to an extent of a. 1 hectareb. 2 hectarec. 5 hectared. 10 hectareAns. b. 2 hectareExplanation - PM KMY is meant for Small and Marginal Farmers falling in the entry age between 18 to 40 years having cultivable land up to 2 hectares The scheme seeks to provide Rs 3,000/- monthly pension to the Small and Marginal Farmers once they attain 60 years of age.
18. What is the min percentage of export value required for an industrial unit to be eligible for the Export Oriented Unit status in Indiaa. 25b. 33c. 50d. 75Ans. 
19. Commonwealth Games 2022, India has a spectacular run with a total 61 medals (22 Gold, 16 Silver and 23 Bronze) placing it ata. 3rdb. 4thc. 5thd. 6thAns. b. 4th position 
20. Already Matched P. Swamitva Yojana - Record of Rights to village household owners with issuance of legal ownershipQ. RAMP Scheme - Improving Centre-State linkages, partnership and accelerating MSME performance.R. Samarth Yojana - To provide 5 lakhs certified and trained tyre mechanics by 2022S. Manodarpan Scheme - To provide psychological support in school, college and university students for their mental health and well-being during the COVID outbreak and beyond.
21. Which article of Constitution of India deals with President's rule in a State?a. 352b. 356c. 360d. 370Ans. b. 356
22. Which one of the following is not a wing of Cabinet Secretariat?a. Civil Wing b. Military Wingc. Administrative Wingd. Intelligence WingAns. c. Administrative Wing
23. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the Council of Ministers.a. 44b. 74c. 101d. 123Ans. b. 74
24. Which one of the following constitutional amendments introduced the GST a. 100b. 101c. 122d. 125Ans. b. 101 of 2016
25. Which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India deals with the DPSPa. IIb. IIIc. IVd. VAns. c. IV
26. Which one of the following constitutional amendments lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.a. 42b. 61 c. 73d. 86Ans. b. 61 of 1988
27. How many FR are guaranteed to Indian Citizens under Constitutiona. 4b. 6c. 8d. 10Ans. b.6
28. The term 'Lok Sabha' is borrowed from which one of the following languagesa. Hindib. Sanskritc. Urdud. EnglishAns. b. Sanskrit
29. The President of India can nominate how many members to the Rajya Sabhaa. 6b. 10c. 12d.16Ans. c. 12
30. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment and removal of the Vice President?a. 54b. 62c. 76d. 67Ans. d. 67 
31. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India1. The word socialist used in the Preamble is directly related to the principles contained under Article 392. The word secular used in the Preamble is directly related to Article 293. The words unity and integrity of the nation used in the Preamble are directly related to Article 51ACorrect statementsa. 1 & 2 b. 2&3c. 1&3d. 1,2&3Ans. 

1. Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority under the RTI Act, 2005

Competent Authority means

1. CJI in SC

2. CJ of HC in HC 

3. the Administrator under Article 239 of Constitution of India

a. 1&2 

b. 2&3

c. 1&3

d. 1,2&3

Ans. 

2. Under RTI which is not an objective of Act?

a. promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority 

b. reducing corruption and promoting good governance

c. Empowering citizens and enhancing their participation in governance

d. Providing unlimited access to classified information

Ans. 

3. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act pertain to 

a. information that may cause a breach of privilege of Parliament 

b. Information that may prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India

c. Personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest 

d. Information relating to trade secrets and intellectual property

Ans. 

4. Obligations of Public Authority under RTI Act 

1. every public authority shall maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the RTI Act

2. every public authority shall publish the particulars of its organisation functions and duties

3. every information shall be disseminated widely and in such a manner which is easily accessible to the public. 

4. All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible. 

a. 1 only

b. 1&2 only 

c. 1,2,3 only

d. 1,2,3,4

Ans. 

5. not obligation of public authority to publish information on public domain?

a. powers and duties of its officers and employees

b. norms set by it for the discharge of its functions

c. information received in confidence from foreign government 

d. names, designations and other particulars of the public information officer

Ans. 

6. exemption from disclosure of information under RTI Act

1. details in respect of information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form 

2. information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court 

3. provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to be affected person

4. information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders

Which is correct

a. 1&2 only

b. 1&3 only

c. 2&4

d. 3&4

Ans. 

7. section of RTI Act deals with penalties for non-compliance by public authorities>

a. 27

b. 20

c. 10

d. 16

Ans. Section 20(1)

8. not a ground for rejection of RTI application

a. vague / unclear application

b. application filed by an unauthorised person 

c. application requesting sensitive defence - related information

d. application seeking information from a private entity

Ans. 

9. RTI based on which FR 

a. Equality 14

b. Freedom of Speech and Expression 19

c. Life & Personal Liberty - 21

d. Exploitation 23

Ans. b. freedom of speech & expression 19

10. not correct about RTI 

a. RTI Bill has been passed by both Houses and received assent of the President on 15th June 2005

b. Any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority.

c. there is no nominal application fee that is needed to pay to get information under RTI 

d. RTI Amendment 2019 (24 of 2019) came on 24 Oct 2019.

Ans. 

11. CIC and IC shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a committee consisting of 

1.  PM as Chairperson 

2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

3. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM

a. 1&2

b. 1,2,3

c. 1&3

d. 2&3

Ans. 

12. power ans function of IC to receive & inquire into a complaint from any person

Department wise list


1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare : 

i. Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

ii. Department of Agricultural Research and Education 


2. Ministry of Ayush 

No Dept


3. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

i. Department of Chemicals and Petro-Chemicals 

ii. Department of Fertilizers 

iii. Department of Pharmaceuticals


4. Ministry of Civil Aviation

No Department


5. Ministry of Coal: 

No Department 


6. Ministry of Commerce and Industry 

i. Department of Commerce

ii. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade


7. Ministry of Communications:  

i. Department of Telecommunications 

ii. Department of Posts


8. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution: 

i. Department of Consumer Affairs

ii. Department of Food and Public Distribution 



Ministry of Cooperation: 

No Department 


Ministry of Corporate Affairs

No Department 


Ministry of Culture

No department 


9. Ministry of Defence

i. Department of Defence

ii. Department of Military Affairs

iii. Department of Defence Production 

iv. Department of Defence Research and Development 

v. Department of Ex-Servicement Welfare


Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region

No Department 


10. Ministry of Earth Sciences

No Department 


10A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology 

No Department 


11. Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change

No Department 


12. Ministry of External Affairs

No department 


13. Ministry of Finance

i. Department of Economic Affairs

ii. Department of Expenditure 

iii. Department of Revenue

iv. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management 

v. Department of Financial Services

vi. Department of Public Enterprises


13A. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying

i. Department of Fisheries

ii. Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying 


14. Ministry of Food Processing Industries

No Department 


15. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

i. Department of Health and Family Welfare

ii. Department of Health Research 


16. Ministry of Heavy Industries

No Department 


17. Ministry of Home Affairs

i. Department of Internal Security 

ii. Department of States 

iii. Department of Official Language

iv. Department of Home

v. Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs

vi. Department of Border Management


17A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

No Department 


18. Ministry of Education 

i. Department of School Education and Literacy

ii. Department of Higher Education 


19. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 

No Department 


20. Ministry of Labour and Employment 

No Department 


21. Ministry of Law and Justice 

i. Department of Legal Affairs

ii. Legislative Department 

iii. Department of Justice


21A. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

No Department 


21AA Ministry of Mines

No Department 


21B Ministry of Minority Affairs

No Department 


22. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

No Department 


22B Ministry of Panchayati Raj

No Department 


23. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

No Department 


24. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

i. Department of Personnel and Training 

ii. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

iii. Department of Pensions and Pensioners Welfare


25. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas 

No Department 


26. Ministry of Planning 

No Department 


26A. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

No Department 

Citizen Charter



Origin - the concept of Citizens' Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its users. The concept was first articulated and implemented in the United Kingdom by the Conservative Government of John Major in 1991 as a national programme with a simple aim: to continuously improve the quality of public services for the people of the country so that these services respond to the needs and wishes of the users. The programme was re-launched in 1998 by the Labour Government of Tony Blair which rechristened it Services Fast. 


The basic objective of the Citizen's Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public service delivery. Six principles of the Citizens Charter movement as originally framed, were: 


i. Quality - improving the quality of service

ii. Choice - Wherever possible

iii. Standards - Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met

iv. Value: For the taxpayers money 

v. Accountability - Individuals and Organisations

vi. Transparency - Rules / Procedures / Schemes / Grievances



The Indian Scene - 


Over the years, in India, significant progress has been made in the field of economic development. This, along with a substantial increase in the literacy rate, (from 51.63% to 65.38% in the last decade) has made Indian citizens increasingly aware of their rights. Citizens have become more articulate and expect the administration not merely to respond to their demands but also to anticipate them. 


Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Government of India (DARPG) initiated the task of coordinating, formulating and operationalising Citizen's Charters. Guidelines for formulating the Charters as well as a list of do's and don'ts were communicated to various government departments/ organisations to enable them to bring out focused and effective charters. 


The Charters are expected to incorporate the following elements: 


i. Vision and Mission statement 

ii. Details of business transacted by the Organisation 

iii. Details of clients

iv. Details of services provided to each client group 

v. Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to access it

vi. Expectations from the clients. 


Evaluation of Citizens' Charters


During the Year 2002-03, DARPG engaged a professional agency to develop a standardised model for internal and external evaluation of Citizens' Charters in a more effective, quantifiable and objective manner. This agency also carried out evaluation of implementation of Charters in 5 Central Government Organisations and 15 Departments/ Organisations of States of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. This Agency was also required to suggest methods for increasing awareness, both within the organisation and among the users, and to suggest possible methods for orientation of management and the staff in the task of formulating and deploying Charters.

As per the report of evaluation carried out by the Agency, major findings were:

(i) In majority of cases Charters were not formulated through a consultative process

(ii) By and large service providers are not familiar with the philosophy, goals and main features of the Charter

(iii) Adequate publicity to the Charters had not been given in any of the Departments evaluated. In most Departments, the Charters are only in the initial or middle stage of implementation

(iv) No funds have been specifically earmarked for awareness generation of Citizens' Charter or for orientation of staff on various components of the Charter



Q What is a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. Citizen's Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standards of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-Discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtsey and Value for Money. This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment of the Organisation.


Q Who is a 'Citizen' with reference to Citizen's Charter?

Ans. The term 'Citizen' in the Citizen's Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are addressed by the Citizen's Charter and therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e. citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrators etc. 


Q Whether Ministries/ Department/ Agencies of the State Governments and UT Administrations are also required to formulate Citizen's Charters?

Ans. Citizen's Charter initiative not only covers the Central Govt Ministries/ Departments/ Organisations but also the Departments/ Agencies of State Governments and UT Administrations. Various Departments/ Agencies of many State Governments and UT Administrations have brought out their Charters. More than 600 Citizen's Charters have so far been issued by Agencies/ Organisation of 24 States/ UTs. 


Q Whether Citizen's Charter is legally enforceable?

Ans. No. The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, It is a tool for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. 


Q What is the role of Dept of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Citizen's Charter Initiative in the Government?

Ans. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizens' Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation. 


Q What are the components of a Citizen's Charter?

Ans. A good Citizen's Charter should have the following components: - 

i. Vision and Mission Statement of the Organisation. 

ii. Details of Business transacted by the Organisation.

iii. Details of Citizens' or Clients.

iv. Statement of services including standards, quality, time frame etc. provided to each Citizen/ Client group separately and how/ where to get the services. 

v. Details of Grievance Redress Mechanism and how to access it. 

vi. Expectations from the 'Citizens' or 'Clients'.

vii. Additional commitments such as compensation in the event of failure of service, delivery. 

Constitutional Bodies


Constitutional bodies are important bodies in India that derive their powers and authorities from the Indian Constitution.


i. They are specifically mentioned in the Constitution, meaning they have dedicated articles.


ii. Any change in the mechanism of these bodies would require a constitutional amendment.


iii. Important bodies such as the Finance Commission, the UPSC, the Election Commission, the CAG, National Commissions for SCs and STs, etc. are constitutional bodies.




Statutory Bodies in India


These are non-constitutional bodies as they do not find any mention in the Constitution.


i. They are also important bodies due to their function.


ii. They are created by an Act of Parliament.


iii. These are also termed non-constitutional bodies that make rules & regulations and take decisions on behalf of the government.


iv. They are called ‘statutory’ since statutes are laws made by the Parliament or the legislature.


v. Since these bodies derive their power from statutes or laws made by the Parliament, they are known as statutory bodies.


vi. Some examples of statutory bodies are National Commission for Women, National Human Rights Commission, National Green Tribunal, etc.


List of Important Statutory Bodies in India 


i. Securities & Exchange Board of India - SEBI Act, 1992


ii. National Human Rights Commission - Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993


iii. National Commission for Women - National Commission for Women Act, 1990


iv. National Commission for Minorities - National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992


v. National Green Tribunal - National Green Tribunal Act 2010


vi. Armed Forces Tribunal  - Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007


vii. Unique Identification Authority of India Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016


viii. Central Vigilance Commission Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 


ix. Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020


x. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights - Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005


xi. Competition Commission of India - Competition Act, 2002


xii. National Legal Services Authority - Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987


xiii. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development - National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981




Regulatory Bodies in India


Regulatory bodies are public or government agencies responsible for exercising autonomous authority over some area of human activity in a regulatory or supervisory capacity.


i. Some regulatory bodies are independent, which means they are independent of any branch of the government.

ii. They are set up to enforce safety and standards.

iii. They have the charge of establishing norms of a particular area of human activity, and also supervising the bodies employed in that activity.

iv. They are established by legislative acts. 

v. The main functions of the regulatory body are typically identified as follows:


a. Regulations and guides

b. Review and assessment

c. Licensing

d. Inspection

e. Corrective actions

f. Enforcement



i. RBI - Banking, monetary policy and finance

ii. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) -Insurance 

iii. Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (PFRDA) - Pension

iv. National Housing Bank (NHB) - Housing finance

v. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) - Telecom and tariffs

vi. Central Board of Film Certification - Film certification and censorship

vii. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) - Food safety

viii. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) - Standards and certification

ix. Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) - Cricket 



Executive Bodies: - 


These bodies are non-constitutional and non-statutory. 


a. They are not mentioned in the Constitution.

b. They are also not established by an act of Parliament.

c. They are formed by executive resolution or action, which means that they are formed by the government’s action only.

d. They can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law. For example, the UIDAI was made into a statutory body after it was established by enacting a new law.


List of Executive Bodies (Non-Constitutional Body/Executive Body) -


i. Niti Ayog

ii. National Development Council

iii. Central Bureau of Investigation


Judicial Bodies


Judicial bodies are courts in India. Their chief objective is to provide justice by following the laws of the land.


i. Supreme Court of India

ii. High Court of India



Quasi-judicial Bodies


A quasi-judicial body can be an individual or body with powers resembling a court of law.


-They can adjudicate and decide penalties on the guilty.

-They are different from judicial bodies in that their field is limited compared to a court.

-They can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.

-They can be tribunals for a specific domain, or like an arbitrator.

-Quasi-judicial bodies have adjudicating powers in such matters as:

=Breach of discipline;

=Trust in money matters or otherwise

=Conduct rules


Their authority is limited to specific areas like: Financial markets; Land use and zoning; Public standards; Employment law; Specific set of regulations of an agency


-Decisions of a quasi-judicial body are often legally enforceable under the laws of a jurisdiction.


List of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are:


i. National Green Tribunal

ii. Central Information Commission

iii. National Human Rights Commission

iv. Tribunal

v. SEBI


Note: A single body can be a statutory, regulatory, and quasi-judicial body


Difference between Judicial and Quasi-judicial Bodies


i. Judicial decisions are bound by precedent in common law, whereas quasi-judicial decisions are generally not.


ii. Judicial decisions may create new laws, but quasi-judicial decisions are based on existing law.


iii. Quasi-judicial needn’t adhere to strict judicial rules (of procedure and evidence).


iv. Quasi-judicial bodies can hold formal hearings only if they are mandated to do so as per their governing laws.




Q What is the difference between statutory and constitutional bodies?

Ans. Statutory bodies are established by an act of a parliament whereas constitutional bodies are mentioned in the constitution and derive their powers from it.


Q Is CBI a statutory body?

Ans. The CBI is not a statutory body although it derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which was passed in British India.


Q When can a quasi-judicial body be formed?

Ans. A Quasi-Judicial body can be formed on a matter pending in court, by court order if the court considers it necessary; the court reserves the right to appoint members of such a body.


Q Which body can be formed by governments action only?

Ans. Executive bodies are are formed by executive resolution or government actions. These are not mentioned in the constitution and are not established by an act of parliament. These bodies can be converted into a statutory body by enacting a law.

Q Is NITI Aayog statutory body?

Ans. NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It is an executive body.

Statutory Bodies 


Aeronautical Development Agency, Ministry of Defence 

Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) 

Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB), New Delhi 

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority 

Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) 

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute for the Hearing Handicapped (AYJNIHH) 

Ali Yavar Jung National Institute of Speech and Hearing Disabilities (Divyangjan) 

Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) 

All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Ministry of AYUSH 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Bhopal 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Jodhpur 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Patna 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Raipur 

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Rishikesh 

All India Institute of Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, Mumbai 

All India Institute of Speech and Hearing (AIISH), Mysore 

All India Radio (AIR) 

Apex Hi-Tech Institute, Bangalore 

Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) 

Assam University 

Atomic Energy Central School, Narwapahar, Jharkhand 

Atomic Energy Central School-5, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai, Maharashtra 

Atomic Energy Education Society (AEES) 

Babu Jagjivan Ram National Foundation(BJRNF) 

Batteries(Importers) Registration and Management System Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Delhi 

Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) 

Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) 

Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC), New Delhi 

Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany 

Board of Practical Training (BOPT), Easter Region 

Brahmaputra Board Guwahati, Assam 

Building Materials and Technology Promotion Council (BMTPC) 

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) 

Bureau of Immigration (BoI), Ministry of Home Affairs 

Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) 

CBI Academy, Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh 

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), New Delhi 

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) 

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) 

Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) 

Central Council for Research in Yoga & Naturopathy (CCRYN), New Delhi 

Central Council of Indian Medicine, New Delhi 

Central Detective Training School, Chandigarh 

Central Detective Training School, Kolkata 

Central Electricity Authority (CEA) 

Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) 

Central Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute, Budni 

Central Footwear Training Institute,Chennai 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Bhopal 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Guwahati 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Hyderabad 

Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Pune 

Central Government Employees Welfare Housing Organisation (CGEWHO) 

Central Information Commission (CIC) 

Central Institute Of Hand Tools, Jalandhar, Punjab 

Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) 

Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET) 

Central Institute of Horticulture, Nagaland 

Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) 

Central Research Institute (CRI), Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh 

Central Road Research Institute 

Central Silk Board 

Central Staff Training and Research Institute (CSTARI), Kolkata 

Central Tibetan Schools Administration (CTSA) 

Central Institute of Tool Design (CITD) 

Central Manufacturing Technology Institute (CMTI) 

Central Muga Eri Research and Training Institute (CMER and TI), Lahdoigarh, Jorhat, Assam 

Central Power Research Institute (CPRI), Bangalore, Karnataka 

Central Pulp and Paper Research Institute (CPPRI), Saharanpur 

Central Universities , Ministry of Human Resource Development 

Central University of Bihar (CUB) 

Central University of Haryana 

Central University of Himachal Pradesh 

Central University of Karnataka 

Central University of Kashmir 

Central University of Odisha, Koraput 

Central University of Punjab (CUP) 

Central University of Rajasthan 

Central University of Tamil Nadu 

Central Vigilance Commission(CVC) 

Central Waqf Council 

Central Wool Development Board 

Central Zoo Authority (CZA) 

Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) 

Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) 

Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) 

DETAILS

Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET) 

DETAILS

Centre for Womens Development Studies (CWDS) 

Chennai Port Trust 

Controller General Of Communication Accounts (CGCA) 

Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks 

Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) 

DETAILS

Controller of Defence Accounts, Chennai 

Council of Architecture 

Children's Film Society, India 

Coal Mines Provident Fund Organisation (CMPFO) 

Cochin Port Trust 

Coffee Board, India 

Coir Board, , Ministry of Micro Small and Medium Enterprises 

Commisssion for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) 

Competent Authority (CA), Chennai 

Competition Commission of India 

Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC) 

Consultancy Development Centre (CDC), DSIR 

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) 

Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) 

Deendayal Port Trust, Gandhidham, Kutch, Gujarat 

Defence Security Corps 

Delhi Public Library 

Delhi Urban Art Commission (DUAC) 

Dental Council of India 

Desert Medicine Research Centre, ICMR, Jodhpur, Rajasthan 

Directorate General of Shipping 

Distance Education Bureau (DEB) - A Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) 

Footwear Design and Development Institute (FDDI) 

Fragrance and Flavour Development Centre (FFDC), Uttar Pradesh 

Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti (GSDS) 

Geographical Indications Registry (GIR) 

Himalayan Forest Research Institute 

Dr B R Ambedkar National Institute of Technology, Jalandhar 

Dr. Ambedkar International Centre 

Education and Research Network (ERNET) 

DETAILS

Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) 

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESI) - Post Graduate Institute of Medical Science and Research, Andheri 

Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) 

Export Inspection Council (EIC) 

Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) 

Fluid Control Research Institute (FCRI), Palakkad 

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) 

Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia Laboratory (HPL), Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh 

ICAR - Agricultural Technology Application Research Institute (ATARI), Hyderabad 

ICAR-Directorate of Weed Research (DWR) Jabalpur 

Income-tax Settlement Commission / Wealth-tax Settlement Commission 

India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF), Haryana 

Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS), Kolkata 

Indian Coast Guard 

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) 

DETAILS

Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) 

Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun 

India Government Mint, Kolkata 

India Government Mint, Noida 

India International Convention and Expo Centre (IICC), Dwarka, New Delhi 

India Power map 

Indian Academy of Sciences, Bangalore, Karnataka 

Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR), New Delhi 

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 

Indian Council of Philosophical Research, ICPR, New Delhi 

Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) 

Indian Diamond Institute 

Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) 

Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) 

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs 

Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) 

Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship 

Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Una, Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM), Gwalior 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Allahabad (IIITA) 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITD & M), Kancheepuram, Tamilnadu 

Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (IIMA) 

Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB) 

Indian Institute of Management, Calcutta (IIMC) 

Indian Institute of Management, Indore (IIMI) 

Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode (IIMK) 

Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology (IIFPT), Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu 

Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) 

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) 

Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 

Indian Institute of Information Tehnology(IIITs) 

Indian Institute of Legal Metrology 

Indian Institute of Management (IIM) 

Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Management Tiruchirappalli (IIM Tiruchirappalli) 

Indian Institute of Management, Lucknow (IIML) 

Indian Institute of Management, Raipur(IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Management, Rohtak(IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC) 

Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR) 

Indian Institute of Packaging 

Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) 

Indian Institute of Science (IISC), Bangalore 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Bhopal 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bombay (IITB) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras 

Indian Institute of Technology (IITK), Kanpur 

Indian Institute of Technology (IITRPR), Ropar, Rupnagar 

Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of Mines), IIT (ISM), Dhanbad, Jharkhand 

Indian Institute of Technology Gandhinagar (IITGn), Gujarat 

Indian Institute of Technology Indore (IITI), Madhya Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Technology Jodhpur (IITJ), Rajasthan 

Indian Institute of Technology Patna (IITP), Bihar 

Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee 

Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi (IITD) 

Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati (IITG) 

Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad 

Indian Institute of Technology, Mandi (IIT - Mandi), Himachal Pradesh 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Mohali 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISERs) 

Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Thiruvananthapuram (IISER-TVM) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) 

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bhubaneswar 

Indian Institute of Tourism & Travel Management(IITTM), Noida 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management (IITTM) 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Bhubaneswar 

Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel management (IITTM), Nellore 

Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) 

Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) 

Indian National Science Academy (INSA) 

Indian Naval Academy 

Indian Nursing Council 

Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) 

Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute (IPIRTI) 

Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications, Secunderabad 

Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering (IRICEN) 

Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (IRIEEN) 

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (IRIMEE), Jamalpur 

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) 

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya 

Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Academy (IGRUA) 

Indo Tibetan Border Police Force Academy, Mussoorie, Uttarakhand 

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) 

Institute For Design Of Electrical Measuring Instruments, Mumbai 

Institute for Plasma Research (IPR) 

Institute for Social and Economic Change (ISEC) 

Institute for Stem Cell Biology and Regenerative Medicine (inStem) 

Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) 

Indian Railways Institute of Transport Management (IRITM), Lucknow 

Indian Rubber Manufactures Research Association (IRMRA), Thane 

Indian Science Congress Association, Kolkata 

Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC) 

Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) 

Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable Development (IBSD) 

Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) 

Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Gwalior 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Hajipur, Patna, Bihar 

Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) 

Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC) New Delhi 

Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) 

International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) 

Investor Education And Protection Fund Authority 

Institute of Hotel Management (IHM), Pusa, New Delhi 

Institute of Life Sciences (BBSR) 

Institute of Mathematical Sciences (IMSc), Chennai, Tamil nadu 

Institute of Physics (IOP), Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

Institute of Secretariat Training and Management (ISTM) 

Jamia Millia Islamia 

Jan-Dhan Se Jan Suraksha Portal 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Gadhi, Beed, Maharashtra 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya (JNV), Mahe, Puducherry 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Dodballapur,Bangalore rural 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Arwal, Bihar 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Gadag, Karnataka 

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya, Washim, Maharashtra 

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre (JNARDDC) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR) 

Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust 

Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) 

Joint Plant Committee (JPC) 

Kalakshetra Foundation, Chennai 

Kendriya Vidyalaya sector-22, Rohini At D-16, sector-3, Rohini, Delhi 

Kendriya Vidyalaya, Sec - 3, Rohini, Delhi 

Khadi and Village Indutries Commission (KVIC) 

Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library 

Kolkata Port Trust 

Kandla Customs, Ministry of Finance, Dept. of Revenue 

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kalapet, Puducherry 

Kendriya Vidyalaya No.2, Kota, Rajasthan 

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) 

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sector - 25, Rohini, Delhi 

Labour Bureau Comsumer Price Index 

Lady Hardinge Medical College, New Delhi 

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE), Gwalior 

Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) 

Lalit Kala Akademi, National Academy of Fine Art, New Delhi 

Madras Institute of Development Studies (MIDS) 

Maharsi Sandipani Rashtriya Veda Vidya Pratishtan, Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh 

Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya 

Mahatma Gandhi Institute for Rural Industrialization (MGIRI) 

Malaviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur (MNIT) 

Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) 

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Institute of Asian Studies (MAKAIAS) 

Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology, Bhopal 

Medical Council of India (MCI) 

Military Engineering Service (MES) 

Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga (MDNIY) 

Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology (MNNIT), Allahabad 

Mumbai Port Trust 

NCC Alumni Association 

Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) 

Narmada Control Authority (NCA) 

National AIDS Research Institute (NARI), Pune 

National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes & Narcotics (NACIN), Faridabad 

National Academy of Indian Railways, Vadodara, Gujarat 

National Academy of Sciences 

National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB) 

National Accreditation Board for Education and Training (NABET) 

National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL) 

National Achievement Survey (NAS) 

National Achievement Survey 2021 

National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute (NABI), Mohali, Punjab 

National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) 

National Assessment and Accrediation Council 

National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation 

National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL) 

National Brain Research Centre (NBRC) 

National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB) 

National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) 

National Centre for Cell Sciences (NCCS) 

National Centre for Cold-chain Development (NCCD) 

National Awards Portal 

National Bal Bhavan 

National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) 

National Board for Quality Promotion (NBQP) 

National Book Trust (NBT), India 

National Centre for Compositional Characterisation of Materials, Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) 

National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) 

National Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM) 

National Centre of Geo-Informatics 

National Civil Defence College, Nagpur 

National Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Authority 

National Commission for Backward Classes(NCBC) 

National Commission for Minorities(NCM) 

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) 

National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) 

National Commission for Scheduled Castes(NCSC) 

National Commission for Women (NCW) 

National Cooperative Housing Federation of India (NCHFI) 

National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCCBM) 

National Council for Hotel Management and Catering Technology (NCHMCT) 

National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) 

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) 

National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), Western Regional Committee, Bhopal 

National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) 

National Council of Rural Institutes, Hyderabad 

National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) 

National Culture Fund (NCF) 

National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, Haryana 

National Digital Education Architecture 

National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) 

National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) 

National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) 

National Fire Service College 

National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) 

National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New Delhi 

National Handicrafts and Handlooms Museum (Crafts Museum) 

National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC) 

National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) 

National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) Limited, New Delhi 

National Institute for Empowerment of Persons with Multiple Disabilities (NIEPMD) 

National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) 

National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) 

National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh 

National Institute of Ayurveda 

National Institute of Communication Finance (NICF) 

National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD) 

National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 

National Institute for Research in Reproductive Health (NIRRH), Maharashtra 

National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities 

National Institute for the Orthopaedically Handicapped (NIOH), Kolkata 

National Institute of Design (NID) 

National Institute of Design, Andhra Pradesh 

National Institute of Design, Assam 

National Institute of Design, Haryana 

National Institute of Design, Madhya Pradesh 

National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) 

National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology - NIELIT 

DETAILS

National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE) 

National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT), Head Office, New Delhi 

National Institute of Financial Management (NIFM) 

National Institute of Immunology (NII) 

National Institute of Medical Statistics Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi 

National Institute of Naturopathy (NIN) 

National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), ICMR, Ahmedabad 

National Institute of Ocean Technology 

National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training (NIFPHATT), Kochi, Kerala 

National Institute of Health and Family Welfare (NIHFW), New Delhi 

National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (NIHSAD), ICAR 

National Institute of Hydrology (NIH), Roorkee 

National Institute of Immunology 

National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) 

National Institute of Plant Genome Research, New Delhi 

National Institute of Plant Health Management (NIPHM) 

National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) 

National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (NIRTAR) 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research (NITTTRs) 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Chennai 

National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research, Kolkata 

National Institute of Technology (NIT) 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Agartala 

National Institute of Rock Mechanics (NIRM) 

National Institute of Rural Development (NIRD) 

National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST) 

National Institute of Social Defence (NISD) 

National Institute of Solar Energy, Ministry of New and Renewable 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Arunachal Pradesh 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Delhi 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Goa 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Manipur 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Meghalaya 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Mizoram 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Nagaland 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Puducherry 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Sikkim 

National Institute of Technology (NIT), Uttarakhand 

National Institute of Technology(NIT), Raipur 

National Institute of Technology, Calicut 

National Institute of Technology, Durgapur 

National Institute of Technology, Hamirpur 

National Institute of Technology, Jamshedpur 

National Institute of Technology, Karnataka Suratkal 

National Institute of Technology, Kurukshetra 

National Institute of Technology, Patna 

National Institute of Technology, Rourkela 

National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli 

National Institute of Technology, Warangal 

National Institute of Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases 

National Institute of Unani Medicine (NIUM), Bangalore, Karnataka 

National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) 

National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, Maharashtra 

National Institute of Watersports (NIWS) 

National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

National Instructional Media Institute (NIMI) 

National Judicial Academy India 

National Jute Board 

National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) 

National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT) 

National Monuments Authority (NMA) 

National Museum Institute (NMI) 

National Pension System (NPS) Trust 

National Single Window System for Business Approvals 

National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Dakopgre Tura, West Garo Hills, Meghalaya (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Mumbai, Maharashtra (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Skill Trainers Institute (NSTI) for Women, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (formerly Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTI) for Women) 

National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSIC) 

National Sports University, Imphal, Manipur 

National Testing Agency (NTA) 

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), New Delhi 

National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities, New Delhi 

National Power Training Institute (NPTI), Faridabad, Haryana 

National Productivity Council (NPC) 

National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) 

National School of Drama 

National Science Centre, Delhi 

National Tuberculosis Institute (NTI), Bangalore 

Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, Nalanda, Bihar 

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) 

Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML), New Delhi 

Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai 

Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), Delhi 

New Mangalore Port Trust, Panambur, Mangalore, Karnataka 

North Central Zone Cultural Centre (NCZCC) 

North Eastern Hill University (NEHU), Shillong, Meghalaya 

North Eastern Indira Gandhi Regional Institute of Health and Medical Sciences (NEIGRIHMS) 

North Eastern Institute of Ayurveda and Homoeopathy (NEIAH), Shillong, Meghalaya 

North Eastern Regional Institute of Water and Land Management (NERIWALM) 

North Eastern Space Applications Centre 

North Zone Cultural Center, Sheesh Mahal, Patiala 

Ocean Science and Technology Cell (OSTC) 

OxyCare - Management Information System 

Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Institute for the Physically Handicapped (PDDUIPH) 

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya National Academy of Social Security (PDNASS) 

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) 

Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) 

Pharmacy Council of India 

Pondicherry University 

Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh 

Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) 

Prasar Bharati, Broadcasting Corporation of India 

Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) 

Rajiv Gandhi Indian Institute of Management (RGIIM), Shillong, Meghalaya 

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Intellectual Property Management (RGNIIPM), Nagpur, Maharashtra 

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development (RGNIYD) 

Raman Research Institute, Bangalore, Karnataka 

Press Council of India (PCI) 

Pune Branch of WIRC, The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) 

Quality Council of India 

Railway Recruitment Management System 

Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation (RRRLF) 

Raman Science Centre and Planetarium, Nagpur 

Rampur Raza Library 

Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth (National Academy of Ayurveda), Ministry of AYUSH 

Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK) 

Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan 

Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) for the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi 

Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB) 

Regional Centre for Urban and Environmental Studies (RCUES), Osmania University, Hyderabad 

Regional Inspectorial Organisation, Shillong 

Regional Institute of Medical Sciences, Imphal, Manipur 

Regional Science Center, Bhopal 

Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) 

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 

Rubber Board, India 

Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics (SINP), Kolkatta 

Sahitya Akademi 

Sainik School Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

Sainik School Kapurthala, Punjab 

Sainik School Rewari, Haryana 

Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh 

Sangeet Natak Akademi 

Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and Technology (SLIET) 

Sardar Swaran Singh National Institute of Renewable Energy (SSSNIRE) 

Sardar Vallabhbhai National Institute of Technology, Surat 

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International School of Textiles & Management, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu 

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 

Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute 

Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) 

Securities Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai 

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 

Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST) 

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) 

Swami Vivekanand National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (SVNIRTAR), Olatpur, Odisha 

Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP) 

Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) 

Semi-Conductor Laboratory 

Society for Applied Microwave Electronic Engineering and Research (SAMEER) 

DETAILS

Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) 

DETAILS

Space Physics Laboratory (SPL), Department of Space, Govt. of India 

Spices Board, India 

Tata Memorial Centre (Hospital) (TMC) 

Tea Board of India, Kolkata, West Bengal 

Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC) 

Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) 

Telecom Equipment and Services Export Promotion Council (TEPC), New Delhi 

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) 

Telecommunication Engineering Centre, New Delhi 

Textiles Committee 

Tezpur University 

The Institute of Cost Accountants of India 

Town Official Language Implementation Committee 

Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Gurgaon, Haryana 

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) 

Tribal Research Institute (TRI), Centres of Excellence (CoE) & Research Projects 

Tuberculosis Research Centre, Chennai 

The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India 

The Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT), Rae Bareli, Uttar Pradesh 

Thirteenth Finance Commission 

Tigernet, a directory of tigers and other wildlife mortality, National Tiger Conservation Authority 

Tobacco Board, India 

Tuticorin Port Trust 

Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) 

DETAILS

University Grants Commission (UGC) 

University of Delhi 

V. V. Giri National Labour Institute (VVGNLI) 

Vardhman Mahavir Medical College and Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi 

Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC) 

Veterinary Council of India (VCI) 

Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata 

Vigyan Prasar Science Portal 

Writings and Speeches of Babasaheb DR. B.R. Ambedkar 

Zonal Cultural Centres (ZCC)

kendriya Vidyalaya No.1, Jipmer Campus, Puducherry 

Visakhapatnam Port Trust (VPT) 

Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan 

Visvesvaraya Industrial and Technological Museum, Bangalore 

Visvesvaraya National Institute of Technology (VNIT), Nagpur 

Wildlife Institute of India (WII

List of Non-Constitutional  Bodies in India which are regulatory in nature

List of Non-Constitutional  Bodies in India which are quasi-judicial in nature

Note: ‘Quasi’ is Latin for “as if.” Quasi-Judicial bodies have a partly judicial character.

They possess the right to hold hearings and conduct investigations into disputed claims and alleged infractions of rules and regulations. They make decisions in a similar manner as courts.

Q What is CPSEs?

Ans. CPSEs are those companies in which Central Govt Share is more than 51%. 


Q Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry / Department?

Ans. Secretary of Each Department is the Chief Accounting Authority. 

Question paper : PS - 2016 & 2017 held in 2021

https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-SoSteno-16-17-Paper-I-141221.pdf

Q1 The term 'public authority' under the RTI, 2005 does not include which one of the following?


a. NHRC

b. Lokayukta of Delhi

c. A NGO receiving substantial grant from the Government

d. Trustees of PM Cares Fund

Ans.

Explanation: 

Q2 Who has the right to information under the RTI Act, 2005?


a. All individuals in India including the foreigners residing in India

b. All individuals in India, agencies of the State and the foreigners residing in India

c. All citizens of India

d. All agencies of the State

Ans.

Explanation: 

Q3 The obligation of a public authority under the RTI, 2005 does not include


a. publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies which affect public

b. providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons. 

c. publication of all relevant facts while announcing decisions which affect public

d. providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest.


Ans.

Explanation: 

Q4 RTI under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include


a. inspection of official documents

b. obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board

c. taking notes from the official files

d. taking certified copy of a decision of the Court


Ans.

Explanation: 

Q5 'Competent Authority' under the RTI Act, 2005 does not mean


a. CM of Delhi

b. Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi

c. Chairman in case of Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh

d. VP of India in case of Council of States


Ans.

Explanation: 

Q6 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005 does not include


a. records as defined under the RTI Act, 2005

b. any information relating to private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority

c. reports of Commissions of Inquiry

d. data material held in any electronic form


Ans.

Explanation: 

Q7 Which one of the following countries has once again topped the list of being the most powerful passport in the world, for the third consecutive year as per Henley Passport Index 2021?


a. Japan

b. Singapore

c. South Korea

d. Syria


Ans. Japan

Explanation: Japan & Singapore both are at first position. However, Japan has scored third time continuously scored first. 

Q8 The 51st edition of International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was held from 16 January to 24 January 2021 in 


a. Mumbai

b. Goa

c. Hyderabad

d. Chennai


Ans. Goa

Explanation: 

Q9 Khelo India Ice Hockey Tournament was organised in 


a. HP

b. Kashmir

c. Ladakh

d. Arunachal Pradesh


Ans. Ladakh

Explanation: 

Q10 Who has been named winner of the prestigious 2021 Michael and Sheila Held Prize along with two others for solving long-standing questions on the Kadison-Singer problem and on Ramanujan Graphs?


a. Nirupam Srivastava

b. Anil Srivastava

c. Anirudh Srivastava

d. Nikhil Srivastava


Ans. d. Nikhil Srivastava

Explanation: 

Q11 World Braille Day is observed globally on 


a. 4th January

b. 7th February

c. 4th March

d. 7th April


Ans.a. 4th January

Explanation: 

Q12 In India, the National Girl Child Day (NGCD) is observed annually on


a. 24th Jan

b. 27th Feb

c. 24th Mar

d. 27th Apr


Ans.a. 24th Jan

Explanation: 

Q13 Which one of the following statement is not correct?


a. Untouchability has been abolished in India

b. In India practising untouchability is an offence.

c. The Civil Rights Protection Act, 1955 deals with untouchability

d. The offence of untouchability is punishable by law made by the legislature of a State.


Ans. c. The Civil Rights Protection Act, 1955 deals with untouchability

Explanation: 

Q14 According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not prohibited?


a. Conferment of a military title by the State

b. An Indian citizen accepting any title from a foreign State

c. An individual, who is not a citizen of India but holding an office of profit in India, accepting a title from a foreign State after informing the President of India

d. An individual holding an office of trust under the State, accepting any present without informing the Government of India


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q15 The citizens of India do not have which one of the following fundamental rights?


a. Right to reside and settle in any part of India

b. Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

c. Right to practice any profession

d. Right to form an association


Ans. b. Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

Explanation: 

Q16 Parliament of India consists of 


a. the President of India only

b. the House of the People and the Council of States only

c. The President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States

d. The Vice-President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States


Ans. c. The President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States

Explanation: 

Q17 Which of the following statement is/are correct?


The President of India can proclaim emergency

1. on the ground of war, aggression or armed rebellion

2. only if the decision of the Union Council of Ministers is communicated to him in writing.

3. only if both houses of Parliament approve the proclamation after its promulgation.


Select the correct answer using the code given below:


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1,2 and 3 

d. 3 only


Ans.  

Explanation: 

Q18 The book titled, 'By Many a Happy Accident" Recollections of a Life' has been authored by


a. RP Gupta

b. Mohammad Hamid Ansari

c. Peter Mukerjea

d. Kabir Bedi


Ans.  b. Mohammad Hamid Ansari

Explanation: 

Q19 The book titled, 'Platform Scale: For a Post-Pandemic World' has been authored by


a. Michael Joseph

b. Meghna Pant

c. Sangeet Paul Choudhary

d. Priyanka Chopra Jonas


Ans. c. Sangeet Paul Choudhary

Explanation: 

Q20 Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to quorum of Lok Sabha/ Parliamentary Committees?


a. Quorum of the House is one-tenth of the total members of the House

b. Quorum of a Parliamentary Committee is, as near as may be, one-third of its total members.

c. The House/ Committee cannot commence its sitting without ensuring quorum.

d. Quorum is ensured only when it is pointed out by a member.


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q21 Which one of the following Ministries/ Departments handles matters related to private air transport (including Cargo) Industry?


a. Department of Heavy Industries

b. Department of Defence Production

c. Ministry of Civil Aviation

d. Ministry of Tourism


Ans. c. Ministry of Civil Aviation

Explanation: 

Q22 The Commission of Railway Safety functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of 


a. Labour and Employment

b. Railways

c. Commerce and Industries

d. Civil Aviation 


Ans. d. Civil Aviation

Explanation: 

Q23. Which of the following statements is / are correct with regard to the effects of dissolution of Lok Sabha?


1. The dissolution is irrevocable

2. All business pending before the Lok Sabha lapses

3. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha immediately before its dissolution can be taken up by the Rajya Sabha


Select the correct answer using the code given below:


a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q24 Which one of the following statements is not correct?


a. Before 1923, a Bill passed by one House and transmitted to the other House of the Central Legislative Assembly did not lapse upon dissolution of the House which had passed it. 


b. Bills passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha on the date of dissolution of Lok Sabha, lapse.


c. Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, lapse.


d. Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha do not lapse


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q25 Which one of the following statements is correct?


a. A Bill can be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses notwithstanding the dissolution of the Lok Sabha


b. A Bill cannot be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses after Lok Sabha is dissolved.


c. Joint session cannot be convened by the President after dissolution of Lok Sabha even though the President notified his intention to summon the Joint Sitting of the Houses.


d. There is express provision in the Constitution regarding the effect of dissolution on a Bill which has been passed by the two Houses and sent to the President for assent.


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q26. Which of the following statements is/ are correct with regard to the effect of dissolution of Lok Sabha?


1. Supplementary Demands for grants do not lapse.


2. A motion given in pursuance of Section 3(1) of Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 for presenting an address to the President praying for removal of a Judge, if admitted, will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.


3. Anything said or done during the existence of a House, can be raised as a privilege issue after that House has been dissolved.


Select the correct answer using the code given below: 


a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q27 Which of the following statements is/ are correct with regard to Lok Sabha?


1. The procedure for summoning of Lok Sabha for an emergency session is generally not same as for a regular session.


2. The assurances given by Ministers on the floor of the House, which are pending for implementation are deemed not to lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.


3. Business pending before parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha do not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.


Select the correct answer using the code given


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1,2 and 3


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q28 Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is correct?


a. He has the right to take part in the proceedings and vote in either House of Parliament 

b. He has the right to take part in the proceedings but has no right to vote in either House of Parliament

c. He cannot attend a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

d. He cannot take part in the Committee meetings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q29 World Economic Forum, an International Organisation for Public Private Cooperation, is headquartered at


a. Cologny, Geneva, Switzerland

b. Davos-Klosters, Graubunden, Switzerland

c. Dalian, China

d. Abu Dhabi, UAE


Ans. a. Cologny, Geneva, Switzerland

Explanation: 

Q30 Which one is not a necessary condition for competitiveness of a firm?


a. Comparable quality of the product with that of rivals.

b. Competitive price with rivals

c. Adequate returns of the firm

d. Economical use of resources by the firm


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q31 Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply


a. lower price for same value

b. same price for higher value

c. same price and same value

d. matching core competencies to the opportunities


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q32 Auction is a market where price is 


a. set by negotiation between buyer and seller

b. arrived at by a bidding process

c. notified by Government 

d. declared by auctioneer


Ans. 

Explanation: 

Q33 Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not 


a. voluntary 

b. deliberate

c. binding 

d. imposed


Ans. 

Explanation: 

https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP-SoSteno-16-17-Paper-I-141221.pdf


2015 Type VI


Q1 what is the correct sequence of order in communication process?

a. decoding of message, transmission, encoding of message and feedback

b. encoding of message, transmission, decoding of message and feedback

c. decoding of message, encoding of message, transmission and feedback

d. encoding of message, decoding of message, transmission and feedback

Ans. Sender Encoding Message Channel Decoding and Receiver

Q2 in actual practice, the executive power of the union resides with the 

a. prime minister 

b. president 

c. council of ministers headed by the prime minister 

d. vice president

Ans. President

Q3 when the volume of work in a ministry exceeds the manageable charge of a secretary, one or more wings may be established under the charge of a. DS 

b. Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary

c. US

d. DD

Ans. Special Secretary/ Additional Secretary or JS

Q4 who among the following is responsible for shaping the overall policies of the Government in discharging its responsibilities?

a. Minister of State

b. Prime Minister

c. The Cabinet

d. Deputy Ministers

Ans. The Cabinet

Q5 In cases where decision is required, a file should not pass through more than

a. 5 levels

b. 4 levels

c. 3 levels

d. 2 levels

Ans. 4 levels.

Q6 If any officer receives any oral instruction from the Minister, which are not in accordance with the norms, rules and regulations, the officer should

a. not take any action

b. seek further clear orders from the secretary, about the line of action to be taken, clearly stating the situation

c. postpone the action

d. decide on his own

Ans. b. seek further clear orders from the secretary, about the line of action to be taken, clearly stating the situation.

Q7 A classified file considered fit for permanent preservation will be transferred to the 

a. old records

b. national archives

c. national documents

d. permanent documents

Ans. National Archives

Q8 Consider the following statements: 

Any officials other than the Ministers and Secretaries, if approached by a representative of the press will normally

a. only 1

b. only 2

c. either 1 or 2

d. neither 1 nor 2

Ans. Only1

Q9 which day of the week should be observed strictly as a meetingless day to receive and hear grievances of the members of the public?

a. tuesday

b. wednesday

c. thursday

d. friday

Ans. b. wednesday

Q10 what will be the date of restoration of commuted portion of pension

a. 5 years from the date of retirement

b. 10 years from the date of retirement

c. 15 years from the date of retirement 

d. 20 years from the date of retirement 

Ans. 15 years from the date of retirement

Q11 a member of a group who influences his followers more than getting influenced by them is a

a. head

b. leader

c. motivator

d. manager

Ans. leader

Q12. which of the following is true in the case of a money bill?

a. the rajya sabha can make amendments in a money bill

b. the lok sabha has to return money bill to the rajya sabha within 30 days

c. the speaker's decision on the subject of money bill is final

d. the finance minister's decision on the subject of money bill is final

Ans. the speaker's decision on the subject of money bill is final

Q13. which of the following forms of communication is meant for the officers of equivalent level in the Central Secretariat?

a. Letter

b. Demi Official Letter

c. Office Memorandum 

d. Inter Departmental Note

Ans. Demi Official Letter

Q14 which of the following cases are known as no noting cases?

a. routine or repetitive cases

b. action in correspondence cases

c. ephemeral cases

d. problem solving cases

Ans. ephemeral cases

Q15 consider the following characteristic features for an administrator 

which of the above characteristic features is/ are correct for a good administrator?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 only

Ans. 

Q16 which one of the following has to give concurrence in case of financial sanctions involving Foreign Exchange?

a department of commerce

b. MEA

c. Department of Economic Affairs

d. Department of Financial Services

Ans. 

Q17 the committee on Public Undertakings consists of 

a. 16 Lok Sabha members and 06 Rajya Sabha Members

b. 14 Lok Sabha members and 08 Rajya Sabha Members

c. 11 Lok Sabha members and 11 Rajya Sabha Members

d. 15 Lok Sabha members and 07 Rajya Sabha Members

Ans. total 22 (15 from LS and 07 from RS)

Q18 the level of Desk functionary should depend on

a. connectivity and coverage of work

b. nature and complexity of work

c. intelligence and hard work

d. nature and comprehension of work

Ans. b. nature and complexity of work 

Q19 Consider the following statements: 

Space planning activity arises when 

Ans. 

Q20 a compact machine which enables an officer to record dictation at his convenience without the aid of a stenographer is 

a. MFD

b. Dictaphone

c. EPABX

d. Electronic Typewriter

Ans. Dictaphone

very imp link please find https://darpg.gov.in/sites/default/files/CSMOP_0_0.pdf


Accounting

Data in Public Domain 

Source - google


Ministry of Defence has five departments - 

1. Department of Defence (DOD)

2. Department of Defence Production (DDP)

3. Department of Ex Servicemen Welfare (DESW)

4. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

5. Department of Military Affairs (DMA)

Defence Accounts Department (DAD) functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Defence and is headed by Controller General of Defence Accounts.


The mandate given to the Department is broadly audit, financial advice, payment and accounting of all charges pertaining to Armed Forces, including bills for supply and services rendered and for constructions and repair works, pay and allowances, pension etc. of Defence Personnel and Civilians, audit of cash and store accounts of all organisations under Ministry of Defence viz. Army, Navy, Air Force, Indian Coast Guard, Border Roads Organisation (BRO), Ordnance Factories, Director General of Defence Estates (DGDE), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) etc. maintenance of manufacturing accounts and store accounts of Ordnance Factories and manufacturing accounts of Naval Dockyard.


In addition to the duties mentioned above, the Integrated Financial Advisers have been appointed with the General Officers Commanding-in-Chief of Commands, Corps Commanders and sundry other echelons of the 3 Services and other organisations etc. 


The DAD has a vast geographical spread with a network of 1110 offices located through the length and breadth of the country to cater to the needs of all elements of the Indian Defence Services viz. Army, Air Force and Navy as also all other organisations under Ministry of Defence viz. Defence Ordnance Factories (41), DRDO Laboratories / Projects (50), Coast Guard, DGQA, DGBR, DGNCC, DG Defence Estates, Canteen Stores Department (CDS) etc. 


The field offices of the department dealing with the Army has been structured by and large on the pattern of Army Commands/ Area HQrs, etc. The location of these Controller Offices is in close proximity to the Command Headquarters/ Area Headquarters in order to enable them to render prompt services to the Unit/ Formations located in these areas. Under some of the Controllers offices, there are also Area Accounts Offices to render prompt services to various Units/ Formations in their vicinity. In addition, there are Local Audit Offices to audit the cash and store accounts of the Units and Formations and one Sr. AO/ AO is attached to each Garrison Engineer for Works related tasks. The Pay Accounts Offices (JCOs/ORs) are also under the jurisdiction of the nearest Army Controller which deal with pay and allowances of JCOs/ ORs of different Regiments. In all there are 12 Principal Controllers/ Controllers looking after the audit, payment and accounting functions of Indian Ary and 01 Principal Controller at Pune specifically dealling with the pay and allowances of the Commissioned Officers. 


There is a PCDA at New Delhi to deal with the pay and allowances of civilian staff of Service Headquarters and Ministry of Defence including payment of foreign contracts and payment for purchases made by Services Headquarters. There is PCDA (Pensions) at Allahabad (Prayagraj) to deal with sanction/ revision and disbursement of pension for Army Personnel and Defence Civilians. In addition, 14 PCDAs/ CDAs are dedicated to Air Force, Navy, Coast Guard, DRDO, CSD, Border Roads, Pension, Pension Disbursement and Provident Fund for Civilian Employees. The Ordnance Factory Board has 41 Ordnance Factories under its control and with each Ordnance Factory, an Accounts Office is attached. A total of 09 Controller of Finance and Accounts are working as Group Controllers with PCA (Fys) at the helm of Accounts and Finance setup in Ordnance Factories. Further, there are 127 PIFA/ IFA offices dedicated for rendering financial advice to all the services and organisations under MoD.


As regards training of officers / staff of DAD, a National Academy of Defence Financial Management (NADFM) for Group A Officers is located at Pune and 05 Regional Training Centres for staff along with Centre for Training and Development (CENTRAD) Delhi Cantt, Defence Pension Training Institute (DPTI) at Allahabad for pension related training of all stakeholders namely banks, treasury offices, RO/ PAO personnel etc. and an Officers Training Institute (OTI) at Gurugram for imparting training to Gp B officers of the department. 


As the Principal Accounting Officer of MoD, the CGDA furnishes necesary information for the Appropriation Accounts to the MoD. CGDA also prepares the Annual Consolidated Accounts of Defence Services Receipts & Charges and acts as the Principal Accounts Officer for Civil Estimates of the MoD. DAD is also responsible for rendering the Annual Accounts for the OFB, Military Farms, Canteen Stores Department and Works Expenditure. In addition, the Annual Audit Certificate for the Defence Services, rendered by the CGDA to the C&AG thhrough MoD, is tabled in the Parliamnet. Of late, Audit of offset claims has also been entrusted to the Department, which is being carried out by Pr CDA (AF), New Delhi.


DAD aims at providing responsive and professional Financial, Audit and Accounting Services. This encompasses timely, efficient and correct payment of Pay and Allowances, Pension & Gratuities to Armed Forces & Defence Civilian and other payments relating to supplies and services. It ensures proper accounting of all such expenditure from the Defence Budget. As the Principal Accounting and Finance entity for the Defence Services, DAD is committed to providing best value for money by being a trusted Financial Services Partner. 

financial services


https://www.mod.gov.in/sites/default/files/DFPDS9721.pdf



local audit


https://cgda.nic.in/audit/new_paradigm010616.pdf


Official Language Rules, 1976

The Official Languages (Use for Official Purpose of the Union)

Rules, 1976

(As amended, 1987, 2007, 2011)

Article 350: Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances

Every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a State in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State, as the case may be.

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 8, read with sub-section (4) of section 3 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 163), the Central Government hereby makes the following rules, namely: 


1.  Short title, extent and commencement - 

i. These rules may be called the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) rules, 1976. 

ii. They shall extend to the whole of India, except the State of Tamil Nadu.

iii. They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.


2. Definitions - In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires - 

a. Act means the Official Languages Act, 1963 (19 of 1963): 

b. Central Government Office includes - 

i. any Ministry, Department or Office of the Central Government 

ii. any Office of a Commission, Committee or Tribunal appointed by the Central Government and 

iii. any Office of a corporation or company owned or controled by the Central Governemtn:

c. Employee menas any person employed in a Central Government Office: 

d. Notified Office means an office notified under sub-rule(4) of rule 10;

e. Proficiency in Hindi means proficiency in Hindi as described in rule 9;

f. Region A means the States of Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh and The Union Territories of Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

g. Region B means the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and the Union Territory of Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli;

h. Region C means the States and the Union Territories other than those referred to in clauses (f) and (g);

i. working knowledge of hindi means working knowledge of Hindi as described in rule 10.


3. Communications to States etc. other than to Central Government Offices: - 

i. Communcations from a Central Government office to a State or a UT in Region A or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State or UT shall, save in exceptional cases, be in Hindi, and if any communication is issued to any of them in English it shall be accompained by a Hindi translation thereof. 

ii. Communications from a Central Government office: - 

a. to a State or UT in Region B or to any Office (not being a Central Government office) in such State or UT shall ordinarily be in Hindi and if any communication is issued to any of them in English, it shall be accompanied by a Hindi translation thereof:


Provided that if any such State or UT desires the communications of any particular class or category or those intended for any of its offices, to be sent for a period specified by the Government of the State or Union Territory concerned, in English, or in Hindi with a translation in the other language, such communication shall be sent in that manner;


b. to any person in a State or UT of Region B may be either in Hindi or English.


iii. Communications from a Central Government office to State or UT in Region C or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State shall be in English.


iv. Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-rules(1) and (2), communications from a central government office in region C to a state or UT of Region A or Region B or to any office (not being a Central Government office) or person in such State may be either in Hindi or in English. 


Provided that communications in Hindi shall be in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilties for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto determine from time to time. 


4. Communications between Central Government Offices communications: 

a. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and another may be in Hindi or in English

b. Between one Ministry / Dept of the Central Government and attached or subordinate offices situated in Region A shall be in Hindi and in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having a working knowledge of Hindi insuch offices, the facilities for sending communicatios in HIndi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;

c. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A other than those specified in clause (a) or clause (b) shall be in Hindi.

d. Between Central Government offices situated in Region A and offices in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or in English


Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time. 


e. Between Central Government offices situated in Region B or Region C may be in Hindi or English

Provided that these communications shall be in Hindi in such proportion as the Central Government may, having regard to the number of persons having working knowledge of Hindi in such offices, the facilities for sending communications in Hindi and matters incidental thereto, determine from time to time;


Provided that a translation of such communication in the other language shall: - 

i. Where that communication is addressed to an office in Region A or Region B be provided, if necessary, at the receiving end;

ii. where the communication is addressed to an office in Region C be provided along with such communication:


Provided further that no such translation in the other language shall be required to be provided if the communication is addressed to a notified office.


5. Replies to communications received in Hindi: - Notwithstanding anything contained rules 3 and 4, communications from a Central Government office in reply to communications in Hindi shall be in Hindi


6. Use of both Hindi and English: - 

Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Act and it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English.


7. Application, representations etc. -

8. Noting in Central Government offices-

9. Proficiency in Hindi -
An employee shall be deemed to possess proficiency in Hindi if:-

a. he has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as the medium of examination ; or

b. he has taken Hindi as an elective subject in the degree examination or any other examination equivalent to or higher than the degree examination; or

c. he declares himself to possess proficiency in Hindi in the form annexed to these rules.


10. Working knowledge of Hindi-

If he has passed -

a. the Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects ; or

b. the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that Scheme ; or

c. any other examination specified in that behalf by the Central Government; or

i. if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.

ii. The Staff of a Central Government office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if eighty per cent of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge.

iii. The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the staff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.

iv. The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazette:

Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having a working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare that the said office shall cease to be a notified office from that date.

11. Manuals, Codes, other procedural literature, articles of Stationery, etc.-

a. All manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Central Government offices shall be printed or cyclostyled, as the case may be, and published both in Hindi and English in diglot form.

b. The forms and headings of registers used in any Central Government office shall be in Hindi and in English.

c. All name-plates, sign-boards, letter-heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationery written, printed or inscribed for use in any Central Government office, shall be in Hindi and in English:

Provided that the Central Government may, if it is considered necessary to do by general or special order exempt any Central Government office from all or any of the provisions of this rule.

12. Responsibility for compliance-

a. It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Government office-

b. The Central Government may from time to time issue such directions to its employees and offices as may be necessary for the due compliance of the provisions of the Act and these rules.




Section 10 in the Official Languages (use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976


1. An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi

(a) if he has passed: 

(i) The Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects or

(ii) the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by that Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any lower examination under that scheme or 

(iii) any other examination specified on that behalf by the Central Government

(b) if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the form annexed to these rules.


(2) The staff of a central govenrment office shall ordinarily be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi if 80 % of the Staff working therein have acquired such knowledge. 


(3) The Central Government or any officer specified in this behalf by the Central Government may determine whether the sraff of a Central Government office has acquired a working knowledge of Hindi.


(4) The names of the Central Government offices, the staff whereof have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi, shall be notified in the Official Gazetter: Provided that the Central Government may if it is of opinion that the percentage of the staff working in a notified office and having working knowledge of Hindi has gone below the percentage specified in sub-rule (2) from any date, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette declare that the said office shall cease to be notified office from that date. 

FOREWARD

The Official Language Resolution dated 18th January, 1968 as adopted by both the Houses

of Parliament states:

“This House resolves that a more intensive and comprehensive programme shall be

prepared and implemented by the Government of India for accelerating the spread and

development of Hindi and its progressive use for various official purposes of the Union and

an Annual Assessment Report giving details of the measures taken and the progress

achieved shall be laid on the Table of both Houses of Parliament and sent to all State

Governments.”

It is in consonance with the provisions of the said Resolution that an Annual

Programme for the promotion and progressive use of the Official Language Hindi is

prepared by Department of Official Language every year for implementation by the Central

Government Offices. The Annual Programme for the year 2021-22 is being issued in the

same context. The demarcation of States/Union Territories of the country into three

Regions has been done on the basis of the extent to which Hindi is spoken and written in

the given Region. The details of three Regions viz. A, B and C as follows:


Region A - States of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand and National Capital Territory of Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands Union Territory.


Region B - States of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and Union Territories of Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. 


Region - C: All other States or Union Territories not included in the „A‟ and „B‟ Regions 


The use of Hindi in the Government Offices has increased but substantial business is still being done in English. The objective of Official Language policy is that normally Hindi be used in all Government business to the maximum extent possible. This will be in keeping with the spirit of the Constitution. Needless to say that doing official work in the people's language will speed-up development and bring transparency in administration.


 In the present era, no language can survive without being associated with Information and Communication Technology (ICT).It is evident that due to availability of Information Technology facilities including computers, e-mail and websites in the Central Government Offices it has become easier to maximize the usage of Hindi in Scientific and Technical subjects. 


The following points in the Annual Programme need to be paid utmost attention:- 


1. It is necessary that Presidential Orders issued on all the nine volumes of the Report of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language be complied with by the Central Government Offices. 


2. Necessary steps should be taken to get Scientific and Technical literature prepared in Hindi by the concerned Departments and made available for the use of public. 


3. Hindi language / Hindi Typing/ Stenography training may be expedited and all concerned should be trained. 


4. Central Government Offices should regularly nominate their employees to the different training programmes of the Department of Official Language and direct them to be present in the classes regularly and to complete training with sincerity and write the examination. Any instance of discontinuing training or not writing the examination should be severely dealt with. 


5. Central Hindi Training Institute imparts 6 weeks (30 working days) training programme to the Officers of Central Secretariat Official Language Service at the time of promotion. 


6. Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie. They should prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Hindi easily. In all the training programmes of the Central Govt., targets for imparting training through Hindi medium compulsorily, have been fixed for the region A,B,C in this Annual Programme. Necessary guidelines are required to be issued to the respective training centers for compliance in this regard. 


7. All the Officials should be acquainted with the Official Language Policy by conducting workshops so that they may discharge their responsibilities effectively. 


8. Central Government Offices should organize seminars relating to their subjects in Hindi medium. 


9. Periodic Official Language Inspections of the Central Government Offices should be conducted by concerned officers and the Senior Officers (DS/Dir./JS) of Department of Official Language. 


10. A Joint Town Official Language Implementation Committees (TOLIC) Website has been created by the Department of Official Language for TOLICs working all over the country (http//narakas.rajbhasha.gov.in). This website is totally free of cost. All the TOLICs can share data (information) related to their TOLICs on this website. The objective of formation of TOLICs is to provide a joint forum for encouraging the use of Official Language in the Central Government Offices across the country and for removing the difficulties being faced in the implementation of the Official Language Policy. In this forum, the members of TOLIC can improve the level of their achievements through deliberations and exchange the information about the best practices adopted by them for increasing the use of Hindi. In a year, two meetings of the committee are to be organized. The Administrative Heads of the Central Government Offices located in the particular town are required to personally attend the meetings of the committee. Under Rule 12 of the Official Languages Rules, 1976, Administrative Head has been entrusted with the responsibility for the implementation of the Official Language Policy of the Union and compliance of the orders issued by Department of Official Language in this regard from time-to-time. Officers of the Department of the Official Language (Hqrs)/ Regional Implementation Offices attend these meetings. The TOLIC which performs the best in increasing the use of Official Language as per the norms fixed by the Department of the Official Language is awarded with “Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar” at National level and “Rajbhasha Puraskar” at Regional level. In order to conduct the proceedings properly, checklist of the relevant points to be considered in the meetings of the TOLIC is provided at the time of formation of the TOLIC.


11. The Quarterly Progress Report should be sent to the Department of Official Language online within 30 days from the completion of the quarter. Similarly, Annual Assessment Report should also be made available by 30th June. All Central Government Offices are required to send Quarterly Progress Report and Annual Assessment Report online only. The system is available at the Department‟s website www.rajbhasha.gov.in. 


12. Ministries/Departments have to ensure constitution/re-constitution of Hindi Advisory Committees at the earliest and ensure holding of their meetings regularly. In these meetings, the checklist of important points provided by the Department of Official Language for the consideration of the members should be kept in view. This checklist is available on the website of the Department of Official Language at www.rajbhasha.gov.in. Decisions taken in the meetings must be implemented. 


13. The Policy of the Govt. with regard to the propagation and spread of the Official Language is that the use of Hindi as Official Language may be increased with motivation, encouragement and goodwill. At the same time, the Rules and Orders should be strictly complied with. In this context it may be mentioned here that under Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976 it is the responsibility of the Administrative Head of each Central Govt. office to ensure that the directions issued under the O.L. Act and O.L. Rules are adequately complied with. If an officer or Employee knowingly (deliberately) contravenes the provisions regarding the Official Language, action may be taken on the basis of the contravention of the rules and orders relating to the case. 


14. The advertisements published by the Central Government Offices in English/Regional Languages shall mandatorily be published in Hindi also. In the Hindi newspapers, advertisement should be given in Hindi only and in English newspapers these should be only in English. When advertisements are given in English newspapers, then at the end of the advertisement, it should be invariably mentioned that the Hindi version of the Notification/Advertisement/Vacancy related circular is available on the website with complete link. 


15. Central Government Offices should ensure that all the computers have Unicode installed on them so that official work in Hindi is done on them easily and smoothly. 


16. Under the able guidance and inspirational leadership of Hon’ble Prime Minister – Shri Narendra Modiji and Hon’ble Home Minister – Shri Amit Shahji, Department of Official Language (DoL), Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), has transformed Covid challenge into an opportunity taking the following initiatives: (i) Inspired by our Official Language Policy and Mnemonics used byHon‟ble Prime Minister, a "12 प्र" framework and strategy has been crafted whose pillars are: 


-प्रेरणा (Inspiration and Motivation) - 

-प्रोत्साहन (Encouragement) 

- प्रेम (Love and affection) 

- प्राइज़अर्थातपुरस्कथर (Rewards) 

- प्रशिक्षण (Training) 

- प्रयोग (Usage) 

- प्रचार (Advocacy) 

- प्रसार (Transmission) 

- प्रबंधन(Administration and Management) 

- प्रमोिन (पदोन्नतत) (Promotion) 

- प्रशिबद्धिा (Commitment)

- प्रयास(Efforts) 


The above framework is used by Officers of DoL while participating in various Rajbhasha meetings and workshops organized in different Ministries / Departments / Central Public Sector Undertakings / National Banks and Town Official Language Implementation Committee(TOLIC) meetings. 


(ii) The two Training Institutes of DoL – Central Hindi Training Institute (CHTI) and Central Translation Bureau (CTB) have started to impart lessons in Hindi language / Hindi typing / Hindi stenography / Hindi translation through electronic platforms (etraining). 


(iii) Regional Implementation Offices (RIOs) of DoL have started virtual inspections through digital platforms (e-inspection). 


(iv) Hindi workshops and Town Official Language Implementation Committee (TOLIC) meetings are being held through Information and Communication Technology (ICT)tools (e-meetings). 


(v) Launched the e-Patrika Pustakalaya Platform at www.rajbhasha.gov.in, the official website of DoL to facilitate seamless and hassle free reading of In-house magazines of various Central Government Organizations. 


(vi) Inspired by Hon'ble Prime Minister's clarion call of Self Reliant India - ‘Be Vocal for Local’, DoL is leaving no stone unturned to make the indigenous memory based computer application (made in technical collaboration with CDAC, Pune; (MeitY) ) - 'Kantasth' more popular and broad based in various Government Organizations. Efforts are also being made to bring in more uniformity and excellence in this application through healthy competition and giving away prizes. 


(vii) Efforts are also being made to improve upon 'Lila Rajbhasha' and 'Lila Pravah' in collaboration with Central Hindi Institute (CHI) of Ministry of Education and C-DAC, Pune. 


(viii) Expanding the number of TOLICs in India and abroad with plan to set up TOLIC in Port Louis (Mauritius); Durban (South Africa); Port of Spain (Trinidad and Tobago); Dubai (United Arab Emirates); and London (United Kingdom). 


The Department of Official Language seeks whole-hearted voluntary support of all Ministries/Departments, Offices, Public Sector Banks and Undertakings etc. in providing greater impetus to Hindi in their day to day work, consistent with the Constitutional and statutory obligations casted upon each one of us and the targets indicated in this Annual Programme for the year 2021-22. 


IMPORTANT DIRECTIONS REGARDING OFFICIAL  LANGUAGE POLICY 


1. Under Section 3(3) of the Official Language Act, 1963, Resolutions, General Orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative or Other Reports, Press Communiqués, Administrative and Other Reports and Official Papers to be laid before a House or Houses of Parliament, Contracts, Agreements, Licenses, Permits, Tender Notices and Forms of Tender should invariably be issued bilingually (Hindi-English). Under Rule 6 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, it shall be the responsibility of the persons signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and in English. 


2. As per Rule 5 of Official Language Rules, 1976, communications received in Hindi are to be replied in Hindi only by the Central Government Offices. 


3. Under Rule 10(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976, the Central Government Offices are required to notify the names of the offices in the Official Gazette, wherein 80% of the staff have acquired working knowledge of Hindi. 


4. Rule 8 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Central Government Offices to issue orders for the employees of the notified offices who have proficiency in Hindi to work only in Hindi for noting, drafting and for such other official purposes as specified in the order. 


5. As per Rule 11 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, all manuals, codes and Non Statutory procedural literature, the forms and headings of registers, name plates, sign boards, letter heads and inscriptions on envelopes and other items of stationary shall also be in Hindi and English (in diglot format). Accordingly, the Central Government Offices are required to send all manuals, codes and other procedural literature relating to Non-Statutory procedural literature to Central Translation Bureau for translation. 


6. Rule 12 of the Official Language Rules, 1976, requires the Administrative Head of each Central Government Office to ensure that the provisions of the Official Language Act, Official Language Rules and directions issued there under are properly complied with and to devise suitable and effective check points for this purpose. 


7. The answers of question papers, except that of the compulsory paper of English, should also be allowed to be written in Hindi in recruitment examinations of subordinate services and such question papers should be made available both in Hindi and English. In interview or oral test, the candidates may be allowed the option to answer in Hindi. 


8. The candidates should have the option to answer the question papers of all in-service, departmental and promotion examinations (including All India Level Examinations) conducted by the Central Government Offices, in Hindi. The question papers should compulsorily be set in both the languages, Hindi and English. In interviews, the candidates may be allowed to answer the questions in Hindi. 


9. Scientists etc. should be motivated and encouraged to read their research papers in the Official Language Hindi in all the scientific/technical seminars and discussions etc. Research papers should relate to the main subjects of the Ministry/ Department and Office concerned. 


10. Every type of training, whether of long-term or of short term, generally be imparted through Hindi medium in „A‟ and „B‟ Regions. To impart training in „C‟ Region, the training material be prepared both in Hindi and English and made available to the trainees in Hindi or English as per their requirements. 


11. So long as the prescribed targets regarding Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers are not achieved in the Central Govt. offices, only Hindi typists and Hindi stenographers should be recruited. 


12. International Treaties and Agreements should invariably be prepared both in Hindi as well as in English. There should be authentic translation of Treaties and Agreements entered into in other countries and they should be kept on file for record. 


13. The following items of work should be done in Hindi in the branches of the banks notified under Rule 10 (4) of the Official Language Rules, 1976:- Applications filled by customers in Hindi and Demand Drafts issued on applications filled in English with the consent of the customer, Payment Order, Credit Card, Debit Card, all kinds of lists, returns, fixed deposit receipts, communications etc. regarding cheque-book, entries in daily Ledger, Muster Roll, Dispatch Book, Pass Book, entries in Log Book, work relating to priority areas, security and customer services, opening of new accounts, writing addresses on envelopes, work relating to travelling allowance, leave, provident fund, house building advance, documents related to medical facilities for the employees, agenda and minutes of the meetings. 


14. In non-Hindi speaking States, respective Regional Language, Hindi and English should be used in this order for boards, sign boards, name plates and directional indicators. 


15. Officers/ employees associated with translation work and implementation of Official Language Policy may be nominated for compulsory Translation Training in the Central Translation Bureau. Officers/ employees having knowledge of Hindi and English both at degree level whose services are likely to be utilized for translation work by the office may also be nominated for translation training. 


16. Translators should be helped out with aids like standard dictionaries (English-Hindi, Hindi-English) and other technical literature and glossaries. 


17. The officers of IAS and other All India Services are imparted compulsory training in Hindi during their training in Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie so that they could make use of it in official work. However, most of the officers do not use Hindi in their official work after joining the service. As such, officials/employees working under them do not get the right message. Consequently, Hindi is not used in official work to the extent required. It is the Constitutional obligation on senior officers of the Central Government Offices to make progressive use of Hindi in their official work. This in turn will motivate the officials/employees working under them, thereby giving impetus to the compliance of the Official Language Policy. 


18. All the Central Government Offices should at their training institutes for Central Services, make arrangements for training in Rajbhasha Hindi, at par with the level of arrangements at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie and prepare literature on their subjects in Hindi so that after training the officers/employees may be able to carry out their work in Official Language Hindi easily. All the training programmes should be prepared in audio-visual form through the use of multimedia projectors, laptops etc. 


19. All the Central Government Offices should widely promote and propagate the various incentive schemes in their Offices in order to accelerate the use of Hindi, so that maximum numbers of officials/employees are benefited by these schemes and Hindi is increasingly used in official work. 


20. To overcome the difficulties faced by various offices in doing the official work in Hindi, new guidelines have come into effect forthwith to organize Hindi workshops. According to new guidelines, the duration of workshop should be- minimum one working day. Minimum two third of the time of workshop shall be devoted to the actual practice of doing the official work in Hindi on the subjects related to that office. 


21. The officers/employees handling Hindi work including training and workshops should also be provided good and sufficient space and other necessary facilities to sit in the office to facilitate them to discharge their duties properly. 


22. All the Central Government Offices should encourage writing of original books in Hindi on subjects concerned and take necessary steps to enrich their Departmental Glossaries. 


23. Emphasis should be given on the use of popular words in our routine work so that citizens have an access to Government Policies/Programmes in simple Hindi language. 


24. Hindi magazines are being published by the Central Government Offices to generate working environment in Hindi. General activities and original articles pertaining to the particular office should be published in these magazines. Main provisions of Official Language Policy may also be mentioned in these magazines. The Central Government Offices are required to bring out e-version of these magazines and to upload them on the ‘e-PatrikaPustakalaya’ platform provided by the Department of Official Language at their website: www.rajbhasha.gov.into facilitate smooth and easy access of the In-house magazines to the readers. 


25. The Central Government Offices should have the facility of Unicode on computers so that work on computers may be done in Hindi also. 


26. It has been noticed that in the website of many Departments, information in Hindi is not being provided or in some cases it is not available completely in Hindi. Website should therefore be developed and updated in Hindi regularly. 


27. The Official Language Cadre should be constituted in the Offices / Undertakings / Banks etc. and it should be in conformity with the total posts. The Hindi officers of the subordinate offices of the Ministries / Departments should be given the same pay scale and designation as the Central Secretariat Official Language Service Cadre. 


28. The Department of Official Language, every year conducts Basic Computer Training Programmes in Hindi through Central Hindi Training Institute and the duration of each programme is five days. Maximum number of officers/employees may be nominated for these training programmes. Trainees will be able to work in Hindi on computer after completion of the training programme. Details of the programmes may be seen at the website of the Central Hindi Training Institute at www.chti-rajbhasha.gov.in. 


29. The Central Government Offices may organize Hindi Seminars. 


30. No Non-Governmental Organization has been authorized to impart training of Official Language to the employees of Central Government Offices by the Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs. Sufficient numbers of training centers across the country are functioning under the Department of Official Language and they impart various types of training to the officers and employees of the Central Government free of cost and they also organize workshops for deliberations on Official Language. As per the directions of Department of Official Language, all the Central Government Offices organize workshops for encouraging the use of Official Language in their respective offices. Besides English, the facility of imparting online training of Hindi language through 14 Indian languages is available on the website of Department of Official Language. Thus, it is not appropriate to incur infructuous expenditure from 10 the Government exchequer for participation in Official Language training and workshops organized by such NGOs. 


31. The Department of Official Language bestows the ‘Rajbhasha Gaurav Puraskar’ with an objective to encourage writing books originally in Hindi in various streams of contemporary knowledge/science and to promote use of official language Hindi. 'Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar' are given by the Department of Official Language to Ministry/ Department, Public Sector Undertakings, Boards/Autonomous Bodies/Trusts etc., Nationalized banks, Town Official Language Implementation Committees and inhouse Hindi Magazines which register significant progress in the use of Official Language. Information about these two award schemes is available at the website of Department of Official of Language www.rajbhasha.gov.in 


32. The Department of Official Language, in its website, has provided the links of various institutions through which one can see the glossary of those institutions. If any office has prepared its own glossary, it may be shared with this Department so that others may also take advantage of it. 


33. Hindi translation of the generally used English sentences has been provided by the Department of Official Language on its website under the heading 'E-Saral Hindi Vakyakosh' so that officers may write noting in Hindi on files easily by using them. 


34. On the demand of Central Government offices, Central Hindi Training Institute imparts training for Hindi language, Hindi typing and Hindi Stenography through video conferencing also. Similar arrangements have also been made by Central Translation Bureau for imparting training to translators. 


35. The Department of Official Language has reiterated the suggestions given by the Hon‟ble Prime Minister in the minutes of the 31st meeting of the Central Hindi Committee – bridging the gap between Official Hindi and the Hindi used by the public; taking measures to further enrich Hindi through other languages of the country; assimilating better words in Hindi from other languages; adding ten good words from each of the other Indian languages into Hindi; ensuring simple translation in Hindi in order to make the official language not a hindrance but a help in the propagation of Hindi. 


36. Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs, has recently requested all Secretaries to Government of India / Heads of various Government Organizations that when they chair their senior officers' meeting every month they should also review the progress of Government work in Hindi and discuss about the implementation of various provisions of Official Language Act and Rules in their organization. Also the Joint Secretary (Administration) / Administrative Head in the Organization should be entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of official work in Hindi and chair the Official Language Implementation Committee meeting every quarter of the year.