MCQs
*******************The Living World*******************
Assertion - Reason type Questions: Q1 Assertion: Taxon and Category are different things.Reason: - Category shows hierarchal classificationAns.AA category is a rank or level in the hierarchical classification of organisms. Taxon is a unit in classification which may represent any level of grouping of organisms based on certain common characteristics. There is some confusion in the use of taxon and category, for example Bryophyta is a taxon while division is a category.Q2. Assertion: the species is reproductively isolated natural populationReason: Prokaryotes cannot be kept under different species on the basis of reproductive isolation.Ans.BThe species is genetically distinct and reproductively isolated natural population. Sexual reproduction is absent in prokaryotes and some protists. In such cases morphological differences, cytotaxonomy and chemo-taxonomy are resorted too.Q3. Assertion: information given on the label of herbarium sheets does not include family.Reason: Families are characterized on the basis of reproductive features of plant species only.Ans.DHerbarius sheet carry a label providing information about date and place of collection Q4. Assertion: Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area.Reason: Flora helps in correct identification.Ans.BQ5. Assertion: Panthera is a polytypic generaReason: Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris and pardus.Ans.AQ6. Assertion: Biological concepts of species is based on reproductive isolation.Reason: Most accepted species concept was given by Linnaeus.Ans.CQ7. Assertion: Botanical Gardens are ex-situ conservation strategy of plantsReason: National Botanical Garden is situated at HowrahAns. CQ8. Assertion: Scientific names for plants have been standardized through ICBNReason: Naming system which used three word format was given by LinnausAns.CQ9 Assertion: Two plants A and B are treated as two taxonomic species.Reason: Both A and B are different in correlated characters.Ans.AQ1. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?a. isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitrob. increase in mass from inside onlyc. perception of events happening in the environment and their memoryd. increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internallyAns. c. perception of events happening in the environment and their memoryQ2. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability fora. interaction with the environment and progressive evolutionb. reproductionc.growth and movementd. responsiveness to touchAns. d. responsiveness to touchQ3. Biological organisation starts witha. cellular levelb. organismic levelc. atomic leveld. submicroscopic molecular levelAns. d.submicroscopic molecular levelQ4. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeusa. Mangifera Indicab. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.c. Mangifera indica Linn.d. Mangifera indicaAns.c. Mangifera indica Linn. explanation: according to binomial nomenclature, the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter e.g. scientific name of mango is Mangifera indica. Name of the author appears after the specific epithet i.e. at the end of biological name and is written in an abbreviated form e.g. Mangifera indica Linn. It indicates that this species was first described by Linnaeus.Q.5. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?a. Hand written scientific names should be underlined.b. every species should have a generic name and a specific epithetc. scientific names are in latin and should be italicizedd. generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.Ans.d. generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.explanation: according to International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter. Q6. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?a. The names are written in Latin and are italicised b. when written by hand the names are to be underlined.c. biological names can be written in any languaged. the first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.Ans. c. biological names can be written in any languageexplanation: Biological names are derived either from Latin language or are latinised. This is because Latin language is a dead language and therefore it will not change in form or spellings with the passage of time.Q7. ICBN stands fora. International Code of Botanical Nomenclatureb. International Congress of Biological Namesc. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclatured. Indian Congress of Biological Names.Ans. a. International Code of Botanical NomenclatureQ8. Biosystematics aims ata. the classification of organisms based on broad morphological charactersb. delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationshipsc. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies.d. identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics.Ans. c. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studiesexplanation: Biosystematics is the study of identification, nomenclature, classification and relationships amongst living beings. In other words, it is the study of diversity of organisms, their comparative and evolutionary relationships based on comparative anatomy, ecology, physiology, biochemistry and other fields.Q9. The book 'Genera Plantarum' was written bya. Engler and Prantl b. Bentham and Hookerc. Besseyd. HutchinsonAns. Bentham and Hookerexplanation: Bentham and Hooker in their monumental work Genera Plantarum (1862-1883) have provided elaborate keys for the easy identification of 202 natural orders and genera.Q.No.1 The Fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by _______________ a. budding b. fission c. regeneration d. fragmentationAns. d.fragmentation*Q.No.2 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known as a. Water b. Temperature c. Photoperiod d. All of theseAns. c. photoperiod*Q.No.3 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known as a. metabolism b. growth c. regeneration d. reproductionAns. a. metabolism *Q.No.4 Which of the following term is used to refer the number of varieties of plants and animals on earth? a. Taxonomy b. Identification c. Biodiversity d. ClassificationAns. b. biodiversity*Q.No. 5 ICBN stands for a. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature b. International Congress of Biological Names c. Indian code of Botanical Nomenclature d. Indian congress of Biological NamesAns. a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature*Q.No.6 Bionomical nomenclature means a. one name given by two scientists b. One specific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet c. two names, one latinized, other of a person d. two names of same plantAns. b. One specific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet.*Q.No.7. In printed scientific names, only the ____________ is capitalized a. class b.species c. genus d. family Ans. c. genus
Q.No.8. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to as a unit of ______________. a. systematic b. identification c. nomenclature d. classificationAns. d. classification*Q.No.9 Systematics refers to the a. identification and classification of plants and animals b. nomenclature and identification of plants and animals c. diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship d. different kinds of organisms and their classificationAns. c.diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship*Q.No.10 Taxon is a a. unit of classification b. species c. highest rank of classification d. group of closely related organisms.Ans. d. group of closely related organisms*Q.No.11 Which of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?a.Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro b.Increase in mass from inside only c.Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory. d.Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.Ans. c.Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory*Q.No.12 The living organism can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for a.interaction with the environment and progressive evolution b.reproduction c.growth and movement d.responsiveness to touchAns.d. responsiveness to touch*Q.No.13 Biological organisation starts with a.cellular level b.organismic level c.atomic level d.submicroscopic molecular levelAns.d. submicroscopic molecular level*Q.No.14 Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus. a.Mangifera Indica b.Mangifera indica Car. Linn. c.Mangifera indica Linn. d.Mangifera indicaAns.c. Mangifera indica Linn.*Q.No.15 Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN? a.Hand written scientific names should be underlined b.Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet c.Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized. d. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.Ans.d. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.*Q.No.16 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature? a.The names are written in Latin and are italicised. b.When written by hand the names are to be underlined. c.Biological names can be written in any language. d.The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.Ans. c.Biological names can be written in any language.*Q.No.17 ICBN stands for a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature b.International Congress of Biological Names c.Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature d.Indian Congress of Biological Names.Ans. a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature.*Q.No.18 Biosystematics aims at a.the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters b.delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships c.the classification of organisms based on their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies d.identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics.Ans.c.the classification of organisms based on their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies.*Q.No.19 The book 'Genera Plantarum' was written bya.Engler and Prantl b.Bentham and Hooker c.Bessey d.Hutchinson Ans.b.Bentham and Hooker*Q.No.20 Linnaeus is credited with a.binomial nomenclature b.theory of biogenesis c.discovery of microscope d.discovery of blood circulationAns.a. binomial nomenclature *Q1 Which of the following are unique features of living organisms?a. Growth and reproductionb. Reproduction and ability to sense environmentc. Metabolism and interactiond. All of the aboveAns.d. AllExplanation: All living organisms share certain unified and basic characteristics (including energy utilisation, regulation of homeostasis, growth, development, reproduction, adaptation) metabolism and interaction.Q2. Cell division occurs _ in plants and _ in animals.a. continuously, only up to a certain ageb. only upto a certain age, continouslyc. continuously, neverd. once, twiceAns. a. continuously, only up to a certain age.Explanation: all cells arise from pre-existing cells by a process of cell division. Cel division is the phenomenon of production of daughter cell from parent cell. It occurs continuously in plants and only up to a certain age in animals. The continuous growth in plants termed as 'unique', while in animals, cells divide up to a certain stage.Q3. In unicellular organisms, with respect to growth and reproduction following can be true.i. Growth and Reproduction are inclusive eventsii. unicellular organisms grow by cell divisioniii. both are exclusivea. only i correctb. only ii correctc. both i and iid. only iiiAns. c. both i and ii. growth and reproduction are inclusive events and unicellular organisms grow by cell division.Explanation: In unicellular organisms, both growth and reproduction are inclusive events as unicellular organisms simply grow by cell division, in which their population size also increase. Both the features are exclusive in higher organisms.Q4. In majority of higher animals and plants, _ and _ are mutually exclusive events.a. growth; nutritionb. nutrition; consciousnessc. growth, reproductiond. reproduction; consciousnessAns.c. growth, reproductionExplanation: growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in majority of the higher animals and plants. Growth may be defined as a positive change in size, often over a period of time. Reproduction leads to production of progenies, possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.Q5. non-living objects - i. grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.ii. grows from internal surface like living.iii. do not grow at all.which of the following option is correct. a. only i b. only iic. only iiid. all i, ii, iiiAns. a. only i - grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.Explanation: non living objects have characteristic growth called extrinsic growth in which object grows after accumulating substance over its surface. Living organisms show intrinsic growth (i.e. grows from inside)Q6. In multicellular organisms, _ refers to the production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.a. growth b. reproductionc. metabolism d. consciousnessAns. b. reproductionExplanation: reproduction ensures the continuity of the species, generation after generation. Genetic variations are created and inherited during reproduction. "like begets like" is the phrase to explain the similarity between parents and offsprings.Q7. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply bya. budding,b. fissionc. regenerationd. fragmentationAns. d. fragmentation Explanation: Fragmentation is a sexual mode of reproduction in which an organism is split into fragments. Each of these fragments develops into mature, fully grown individuals that are clones of the original organism. The fungi, the filamentous algae and the protonema of mosses all easily multiply by fragmentation.Q8. Which of the following factors exclusively affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals?a. Water b. Temperaturec. Photoperiodd. AllAns.c.photoperiodExplanation: photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to the length of day or night. It occurs in plants and animals. It can also be defined as the developmental responses of plants to the relative lengths of light and dark periods. Photoperiod exclusively affects the reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.Q9 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known asa. metabolismb. growthc. regenerationd. reproductionAns.a. metabolism Explanation: Catabolism- breakdown of substances e.g. respirationanabolism- formation of substances e.g. photosynthesiscatabolism+anabolism = metabolism.These are defining features of all life forms. Simultaneous catabolism and anabolism called as amphibolism.Q10 Which of the following term is used to refer the number of varieties of plants and animals on earth?a. Taxonomyb. Identificationc. Biodiversityd. ClassificationAns. c. biodiversityExplanation. the term biodiversity is used for the variety and variability among all forms of living organisms like plants, animals, and micro-organisms present in a given region under natural conditions. Biodiversity can be defined as the totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a region. India is very rich in biodiversity.
Assertion - Reason type Questions: Q1 Assertion: Taxon and Category are different things.Reason: - Category shows hierarchal classificationAns.AA category is a rank or level in the hierarchical classification of organisms. Taxon is a unit in classification which may represent any level of grouping of organisms based on certain common characteristics. There is some confusion in the use of taxon and category, for example Bryophyta is a taxon while division is a category.Q2. Assertion: the species is reproductively isolated natural populationReason: Prokaryotes cannot be kept under different species on the basis of reproductive isolation.Ans.BThe species is genetically distinct and reproductively isolated natural population. Sexual reproduction is absent in prokaryotes and some protists. In such cases morphological differences, cytotaxonomy and chemo-taxonomy are resorted too.Q3. Assertion: information given on the label of herbarium sheets does not include family.Reason: Families are characterized on the basis of reproductive features of plant species only.Ans.DHerbarius sheet carry a label providing information about date and place of collection Q4. Assertion: Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area.Reason: Flora helps in correct identification.Ans.BQ5. Assertion: Panthera is a polytypic generaReason: Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris and pardus.Ans.AQ6. Assertion: Biological concepts of species is based on reproductive isolation.Reason: Most accepted species concept was given by Linnaeus.Ans.CQ7. Assertion: Botanical Gardens are ex-situ conservation strategy of plantsReason: National Botanical Garden is situated at HowrahAns. CQ8. Assertion: Scientific names for plants have been standardized through ICBNReason: Naming system which used three word format was given by LinnausAns.CQ9 Assertion: Two plants A and B are treated as two taxonomic species.Reason: Both A and B are different in correlated characters.Ans.AQ1. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?a. isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitrob. increase in mass from inside onlyc. perception of events happening in the environment and their memoryd. increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internallyAns. c. perception of events happening in the environment and their memoryQ2. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability fora. interaction with the environment and progressive evolutionb. reproductionc.growth and movementd. responsiveness to touchAns. d. responsiveness to touchQ3. Biological organisation starts witha. cellular levelb. organismic levelc. atomic leveld. submicroscopic molecular levelAns. d.submicroscopic molecular levelQ4. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeusa. Mangifera Indicab. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.c. Mangifera indica Linn.d. Mangifera indicaAns.c. Mangifera indica Linn. explanation: according to binomial nomenclature, the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter e.g. scientific name of mango is Mangifera indica. Name of the author appears after the specific epithet i.e. at the end of biological name and is written in an abbreviated form e.g. Mangifera indica Linn. It indicates that this species was first described by Linnaeus.Q.5. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?a. Hand written scientific names should be underlined.b. every species should have a generic name and a specific epithetc. scientific names are in latin and should be italicizedd. generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.Ans.d. generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.explanation: according to International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter. Q6. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?a. The names are written in Latin and are italicised b. when written by hand the names are to be underlined.c. biological names can be written in any languaged. the first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.Ans. c. biological names can be written in any languageexplanation: Biological names are derived either from Latin language or are latinised. This is because Latin language is a dead language and therefore it will not change in form or spellings with the passage of time.Q7. ICBN stands fora. International Code of Botanical Nomenclatureb. International Congress of Biological Namesc. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclatured. Indian Congress of Biological Names.Ans. a. International Code of Botanical NomenclatureQ8. Biosystematics aims ata. the classification of organisms based on broad morphological charactersb. delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationshipsc. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies.d. identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics.Ans. c. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studiesexplanation: Biosystematics is the study of identification, nomenclature, classification and relationships amongst living beings. In other words, it is the study of diversity of organisms, their comparative and evolutionary relationships based on comparative anatomy, ecology, physiology, biochemistry and other fields.Q9. The book 'Genera Plantarum' was written bya. Engler and Prantl b. Bentham and Hookerc. Besseyd. HutchinsonAns. Bentham and Hookerexplanation: Bentham and Hooker in their monumental work Genera Plantarum (1862-1883) have provided elaborate keys for the easy identification of 202 natural orders and genera.Q.No.1 The Fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by _______________ a. budding b. fission c. regeneration d. fragmentationAns. d.fragmentation*Q.No.2 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known as a. Water b. Temperature c. Photoperiod d. All of theseAns. c. photoperiod*Q.No.3 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known as a. metabolism b. growth c. regeneration d. reproductionAns. a. metabolism *Q.No.4 Which of the following term is used to refer the number of varieties of plants and animals on earth? a. Taxonomy b. Identification c. Biodiversity d. ClassificationAns. b. biodiversity*Q.No. 5 ICBN stands for a. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature b. International Congress of Biological Names c. Indian code of Botanical Nomenclature d. Indian congress of Biological NamesAns. a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature*Q.No.6 Bionomical nomenclature means a. one name given by two scientists b. One specific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet c. two names, one latinized, other of a person d. two names of same plantAns. b. One specific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet.*Q.No.7. In printed scientific names, only the ____________ is capitalized a. class b.species c. genus d. family Ans. c. genus
Q.No.8. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to as a unit of ______________. a. systematic b. identification c. nomenclature d. classificationAns. d. classification*Q.No.9 Systematics refers to the a. identification and classification of plants and animals b. nomenclature and identification of plants and animals c. diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship d. different kinds of organisms and their classificationAns. c.diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship*Q.No.10 Taxon is a a. unit of classification b. species c. highest rank of classification d. group of closely related organisms.Ans. d. group of closely related organisms*Q.No.11 Which of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?a.Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro b.Increase in mass from inside only c.Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory. d.Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.Ans. c.Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory*Q.No.12 The living organism can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for a.interaction with the environment and progressive evolution b.reproduction c.growth and movement d.responsiveness to touchAns.d. responsiveness to touch*Q.No.13 Biological organisation starts with a.cellular level b.organismic level c.atomic level d.submicroscopic molecular levelAns.d. submicroscopic molecular level*Q.No.14 Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus. a.Mangifera Indica b.Mangifera indica Car. Linn. c.Mangifera indica Linn. d.Mangifera indicaAns.c. Mangifera indica Linn.*Q.No.15 Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN? a.Hand written scientific names should be underlined b.Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet c.Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized. d. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.Ans.d. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.*Q.No.16 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature? a.The names are written in Latin and are italicised. b.When written by hand the names are to be underlined. c.Biological names can be written in any language. d.The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.Ans. c.Biological names can be written in any language.*Q.No.17 ICBN stands for a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature b.International Congress of Biological Names c.Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature d.Indian Congress of Biological Names.Ans. a.International Code of Botanical Nomenclature.*Q.No.18 Biosystematics aims at a.the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters b.delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships c.the classification of organisms based on their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies d.identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics.Ans.c.the classification of organisms based on their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies.*Q.No.19 The book 'Genera Plantarum' was written bya.Engler and Prantl b.Bentham and Hooker c.Bessey d.Hutchinson Ans.b.Bentham and Hooker*Q.No.20 Linnaeus is credited with a.binomial nomenclature b.theory of biogenesis c.discovery of microscope d.discovery of blood circulationAns.a. binomial nomenclature *Q1 Which of the following are unique features of living organisms?a. Growth and reproductionb. Reproduction and ability to sense environmentc. Metabolism and interactiond. All of the aboveAns.d. AllExplanation: All living organisms share certain unified and basic characteristics (including energy utilisation, regulation of homeostasis, growth, development, reproduction, adaptation) metabolism and interaction.Q2. Cell division occurs _ in plants and _ in animals.a. continuously, only up to a certain ageb. only upto a certain age, continouslyc. continuously, neverd. once, twiceAns. a. continuously, only up to a certain age.Explanation: all cells arise from pre-existing cells by a process of cell division. Cel division is the phenomenon of production of daughter cell from parent cell. It occurs continuously in plants and only up to a certain age in animals. The continuous growth in plants termed as 'unique', while in animals, cells divide up to a certain stage.Q3. In unicellular organisms, with respect to growth and reproduction following can be true.i. Growth and Reproduction are inclusive eventsii. unicellular organisms grow by cell divisioniii. both are exclusivea. only i correctb. only ii correctc. both i and iid. only iiiAns. c. both i and ii. growth and reproduction are inclusive events and unicellular organisms grow by cell division.Explanation: In unicellular organisms, both growth and reproduction are inclusive events as unicellular organisms simply grow by cell division, in which their population size also increase. Both the features are exclusive in higher organisms.Q4. In majority of higher animals and plants, _ and _ are mutually exclusive events.a. growth; nutritionb. nutrition; consciousnessc. growth, reproductiond. reproduction; consciousnessAns.c. growth, reproductionExplanation: growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in majority of the higher animals and plants. Growth may be defined as a positive change in size, often over a period of time. Reproduction leads to production of progenies, possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.Q5. non-living objects - i. grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.ii. grows from internal surface like living.iii. do not grow at all.which of the following option is correct. a. only i b. only iic. only iiid. all i, ii, iiiAns. a. only i - grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.Explanation: non living objects have characteristic growth called extrinsic growth in which object grows after accumulating substance over its surface. Living organisms show intrinsic growth (i.e. grows from inside)Q6. In multicellular organisms, _ refers to the production of progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.a. growth b. reproductionc. metabolism d. consciousnessAns. b. reproductionExplanation: reproduction ensures the continuity of the species, generation after generation. Genetic variations are created and inherited during reproduction. "like begets like" is the phrase to explain the similarity between parents and offsprings.Q7. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply bya. budding,b. fissionc. regenerationd. fragmentationAns. d. fragmentation Explanation: Fragmentation is a sexual mode of reproduction in which an organism is split into fragments. Each of these fragments develops into mature, fully grown individuals that are clones of the original organism. The fungi, the filamentous algae and the protonema of mosses all easily multiply by fragmentation.Q8. Which of the following factors exclusively affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals?a. Water b. Temperaturec. Photoperiodd. AllAns.c.photoperiodExplanation: photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to the length of day or night. It occurs in plants and animals. It can also be defined as the developmental responses of plants to the relative lengths of light and dark periods. Photoperiod exclusively affects the reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.Q9 The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is known asa. metabolismb. growthc. regenerationd. reproductionAns.a. metabolism Explanation: Catabolism- breakdown of substances e.g. respirationanabolism- formation of substances e.g. photosynthesiscatabolism+anabolism = metabolism.These are defining features of all life forms. Simultaneous catabolism and anabolism called as amphibolism.Q10 Which of the following term is used to refer the number of varieties of plants and animals on earth?a. Taxonomyb. Identificationc. Biodiversityd. ClassificationAns. c. biodiversityExplanation. the term biodiversity is used for the variety and variability among all forms of living organisms like plants, animals, and micro-organisms present in a given region under natural conditions. Biodiversity can be defined as the totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a region. India is very rich in biodiversity.
Biological classification***********************
Q.No.1 Which of the following characteristic(s) is / are used by Whittaker for the classification of organisms? a. Mode of nutrition b. Thallus organisation c. Phylogenetic relationships d. All of the aboveAns. d. All of the above*Q.No.2 Organisms of which of the following kingdom do not have nuclear membrane? a.Protista b.Fungi c. Monera d.PlantaeAns. c.Monera*Q.No.3 Protists are a. singled celled eukaryotes b.multicellular eukaryotes c. single celled prokaryotes d.single celled akaryoteAns. a. singled celled eukaryotes*Q.No.4 Which of the following pigment is present in cyanobacteria a.Chlorophyll 'a' b.Chlorophyll 'b' c. Chlorophyll 'c' d.Cholorophyll 'd'Ans. a.Cholorphyll 'a'*Q.No.5 Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen? a. Mycoplasma b.Mycorrhiza c.Euglena d.TrypanosomAns. a.mycoplasma*Q.No.6 Which of the following process are involved in the reproduction of protists? a.Binary fission and budding b.Cell fusion and zygote formation c.Spore formation and cyst formation d. All of the aboveAns. d.All of the above*Q.No.7 Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes? a.Diatoms and Euglena b. Euglena and Trypanosoma c.Diatoms and Desmids d.Gonyaulax and DesmidsAns. c.Diatoms and Desmids*Q.No.8 Which of the following is an example of amoeboid protozoans? a.Trypanosoma b.Paramecium c.Gonyaulax d.EntamoebaAns. d.Entamoeba*Q.No.9 Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the mustard plant? a. Albugo b.Puccina c.Yeast d.Ustilago Ans. a.Albugo*Q.No.10 Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work? a. Agaricus b.Alternaria c.Neurospora d.MucorAns. c.Neurospora
Q11. Which of the following is an example of deuteromycetes?a. alternaria b. colletotrichumc. trichoderma d. all of theseAns. d. all of the aboveexplanation: Deuteromycetes is commonly know as fungi imperfecti because the perfect (sexual) stage is either absent or not reported. Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma belong to deuteromycetes.Q12. Which group of fungi is commonly known as imperfect fungi?a. phycomycetesb. ascomycetesc. basidiomycetesd. deuteromycetesAns. d. deuteromycetesexplanation: - deuteromycetes is commonly known as fungi imperfecti due to absence of perfect sexual stage. They are classed by the colour and structure of the conidia. Since most of the conidia structures look like ascomycetes type, they are believed to be derived from ascos which does not have the ability to reproduce sexually.Q13. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of a. insectivorous plantsb. parasitics plantsc. N2 - rich plantsd. aquatic plants Ans. a. insectivorous plants explanation: Bladderwort and venus fly trap are partially antotrophs. They trap insects insects for obtaining nitrogen and are called insectivorous plants e.g. pitcher plants.Q14. The subunit capsid is calleda. coreb. nucleotidec. amino acidd. capsomereAns. d. capsomereexplanation: The capsomeres is a subunit of the capsid, an outer covering of protein that protects the genetic material of a virus. Capsomeres self-assemble to form the capsid.Virus = RNA + Protein(A capsid is the protein shell of a virus, enclosing its genetic material.)Q15. Which of the following is not a viral disease?a. AIDS and mumpsb. Small pox and herpesc. Influenzad. CholeraAns.d. Choleraexplanation: Cholera is a bacterial disease caused by the pathogen, Vibrio choleraeQ16. The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is known as a. lichenb. mycorrhizac. rhizomed. endomycorrhizaAns. a. lichenexplanation: fungi + algae = lichenThe symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called Lichen. In lichen, there are two components i.e. algal partner called phycobiont and fungal partner called mycobiont.Q17. The genetic material of virus includesa. only RNAb. only DNAc. RNA & DNA bothd. RNA or DNA i.e. one nucleic acid in a virusAns. d. RNA or DNA i.e. one nucleic acid in a virusexplanation: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites which can reproduce only by invading and taking over other cells as they lack the cellular machinery for self reproduction. Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the genetic material are known as Retroviruses.Q18. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of a. ascomycetes and basidiomycetesb. phycomycetes and basidiomycetesc. ascomycetes and phycomycetesd. phycomycetes and zygomycetes.Ans.a. ascomycetes and basidiomycetesexplanation: In fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes), karyogamy is delayed and occurs just before meiosis. In the stage intervening between plasmogamy and karyogamy the cells often contain two nuclei or dikaryons (n+n). Such cells are called dikaryotic cells. The phase is known as dikaryophase.
Q.No.1 Which of the following characteristic(s) is / are used by Whittaker for the classification of organisms? a. Mode of nutrition b. Thallus organisation c. Phylogenetic relationships d. All of the aboveAns. d. All of the above*Q.No.2 Organisms of which of the following kingdom do not have nuclear membrane? a.Protista b.Fungi c. Monera d.PlantaeAns. c.Monera*Q.No.3 Protists are a. singled celled eukaryotes b.multicellular eukaryotes c. single celled prokaryotes d.single celled akaryoteAns. a. singled celled eukaryotes*Q.No.4 Which of the following pigment is present in cyanobacteria a.Chlorophyll 'a' b.Chlorophyll 'b' c. Chlorophyll 'c' d.Cholorophyll 'd'Ans. a.Cholorphyll 'a'*Q.No.5 Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen? a. Mycoplasma b.Mycorrhiza c.Euglena d.TrypanosomAns. a.mycoplasma*Q.No.6 Which of the following process are involved in the reproduction of protists? a.Binary fission and budding b.Cell fusion and zygote formation c.Spore formation and cyst formation d. All of the aboveAns. d.All of the above*Q.No.7 Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes? a.Diatoms and Euglena b. Euglena and Trypanosoma c.Diatoms and Desmids d.Gonyaulax and DesmidsAns. c.Diatoms and Desmids*Q.No.8 Which of the following is an example of amoeboid protozoans? a.Trypanosoma b.Paramecium c.Gonyaulax d.EntamoebaAns. d.Entamoeba*Q.No.9 Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the mustard plant? a. Albugo b.Puccina c.Yeast d.Ustilago Ans. a.Albugo*Q.No.10 Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work? a. Agaricus b.Alternaria c.Neurospora d.MucorAns. c.Neurospora
Q11. Which of the following is an example of deuteromycetes?a. alternaria b. colletotrichumc. trichoderma d. all of theseAns. d. all of the aboveexplanation: Deuteromycetes is commonly know as fungi imperfecti because the perfect (sexual) stage is either absent or not reported. Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma belong to deuteromycetes.Q12. Which group of fungi is commonly known as imperfect fungi?a. phycomycetesb. ascomycetesc. basidiomycetesd. deuteromycetesAns. d. deuteromycetesexplanation: - deuteromycetes is commonly known as fungi imperfecti due to absence of perfect sexual stage. They are classed by the colour and structure of the conidia. Since most of the conidia structures look like ascomycetes type, they are believed to be derived from ascos which does not have the ability to reproduce sexually.Q13. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of a. insectivorous plantsb. parasitics plantsc. N2 - rich plantsd. aquatic plants Ans. a. insectivorous plants explanation: Bladderwort and venus fly trap are partially antotrophs. They trap insects insects for obtaining nitrogen and are called insectivorous plants e.g. pitcher plants.Q14. The subunit capsid is calleda. coreb. nucleotidec. amino acidd. capsomereAns. d. capsomereexplanation: The capsomeres is a subunit of the capsid, an outer covering of protein that protects the genetic material of a virus. Capsomeres self-assemble to form the capsid.Virus = RNA + Protein(A capsid is the protein shell of a virus, enclosing its genetic material.)Q15. Which of the following is not a viral disease?a. AIDS and mumpsb. Small pox and herpesc. Influenzad. CholeraAns.d. Choleraexplanation: Cholera is a bacterial disease caused by the pathogen, Vibrio choleraeQ16. The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is known as a. lichenb. mycorrhizac. rhizomed. endomycorrhizaAns. a. lichenexplanation: fungi + algae = lichenThe symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called Lichen. In lichen, there are two components i.e. algal partner called phycobiont and fungal partner called mycobiont.Q17. The genetic material of virus includesa. only RNAb. only DNAc. RNA & DNA bothd. RNA or DNA i.e. one nucleic acid in a virusAns. d. RNA or DNA i.e. one nucleic acid in a virusexplanation: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites which can reproduce only by invading and taking over other cells as they lack the cellular machinery for self reproduction. Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the genetic material are known as Retroviruses.Q18. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of a. ascomycetes and basidiomycetesb. phycomycetes and basidiomycetesc. ascomycetes and phycomycetesd. phycomycetes and zygomycetes.Ans.a. ascomycetes and basidiomycetesexplanation: In fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes), karyogamy is delayed and occurs just before meiosis. In the stage intervening between plasmogamy and karyogamy the cells often contain two nuclei or dikaryons (n+n). Such cells are called dikaryotic cells. The phase is known as dikaryophase.
Plant Kingdom ******************Q.No.1 The natural system of classification for flowering plants was given by a.Carolus Linnaeus b.Bentham and Hooker c.Engler and Prantl d.RH WhittakerAns. b.Bentham and Hooker*Q.No.2 Phylogenetic classification system is based on the a.morphological characters of various organisms b.anatomical characters of various organisms c.physiological characters of various organisms d.evolutionary relationships between the various organismsAns. d.evolutionary relationships between the various organisms*Q.No.3 Cytological information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour are related with a.numerical taxonomy b.cytotaxonomy c.chemotaxonomy d.all of theseAns. b.cytotaxonomy*Q.No.4 Flagellate isogametes and anisogametes are found in a.Spirogyra b.Fucus c.Volvox d.ChlamydomonasAns. d.Chlamydomonas*Q.No.5 Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as a.isogamous b.oogamous c. anisogamous d.agamousAns. c.anisogamous*Q.No.6 Algin, carrageen and proteins are obtained from a.red algae, brown algae, green algae respectively b.brown algae, red algae, green algae respectively c.red algae, green algae, brown algae respectively d. green algae, brown algae, red algae respectivelyAns. b.brown algae, red algae, green algae respectively. algin - brown algae, carrageen - red algae, green algae - rich in proteins.*Q.No.7 Which of the following class of algae is rarely found in salt water? a.Chlorophyceae b.Phaeophyceae c. Rhodophyceae d.both a. and b.Ans. b.Phaeophyceae (brown algae)*Q.No.8 Which of the algae is mostly found in salt water? a.Phaeophyceae b.Rhodophyceae c.Chlorophyceae d.Both a and b.Ans. b.Rhodophyceae*Q.No.9 What is the number and position of insertions of flagella in rhodophyceae class of algae? a. 2-8, equal, apical b.2, unequal, lateral c.2-6, equal, lateral d.Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae.Ans. d.Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae (Red algae)*Q.No.10 In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a __A___ and has a stalk __B__ and leaf like photosynthetic organ the __C__. a.A-holdfast, B-stipe, C-frond b.A-stipe, B-holdfast, C-frond c.A-frond, B-stipe, C-holdfast d.A-stipe, B-frond, C-holdfastAns. a.A-Holdfast, B-Stipe, C-Frond
**********Animal Kingdom*****************
Q.No.1 When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, the organism is called a. radially symmetrical b. bilateral symmetrical c.asymmetrical d.metamerically segmentedAns. a.radial symmetry*Q.No.2 Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification? a.Germinal layers b.Pathway of water transport c. Pattern or organisation of cells. d. serial repetition of the segmentsAns. b.Pathyway of water transport*Q.No.3 Animals like annelids, arthropods etc. where the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit a. radial b.bilateral c.asymmetrical d.non-symmetricalAns. a.radial*Q.No.4 Which of the following is a fresh water sponge? a.Sycon b.Euspongia c.Spongilla d.PleurobrachiaAns. c.Spongilla*Q.No.5 Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton composed of a.calcium hydroxide b.calcium sulphate c.calcium carbonate d.sodium bicarbonateAns. c.calcium carbonate*Q.No.6 Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phyllum a.porifera b.coelenterata c.ctenophora d.platyhelminthesAns. b.coelenterate*Q.No.7 In ctenophora, the body bears ________ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion a.five b.six c. seven d.eightAns. d.eight*Q.No.8 Flame cells present in platyhelminthes are specialised in a.respiration and absorption b.osmoregulation and circulation c.respiration and excretion d.osmoregulation and excretionAns. d.osmoregulation and excretion*Q.No.9 Polp phase is absent in a.Hydra b.Aurelia c.Physalia d.ObeliaAns. b.Cnidarians*Q.No.10 Which of the following group of animals reproduces only by sexual means? a.Ctenophora b.Cnidaria c.Porifera d.ProtozoaAns. a.Ctenophora
Q.No.1 When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, the organism is called a. radially symmetrical b. bilateral symmetrical c.asymmetrical d.metamerically segmentedAns. a.radial symmetry*Q.No.2 Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification? a.Germinal layers b.Pathway of water transport c. Pattern or organisation of cells. d. serial repetition of the segmentsAns. b.Pathyway of water transport*Q.No.3 Animals like annelids, arthropods etc. where the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit a. radial b.bilateral c.asymmetrical d.non-symmetricalAns. a.radial*Q.No.4 Which of the following is a fresh water sponge? a.Sycon b.Euspongia c.Spongilla d.PleurobrachiaAns. c.Spongilla*Q.No.5 Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton composed of a.calcium hydroxide b.calcium sulphate c.calcium carbonate d.sodium bicarbonateAns. c.calcium carbonate*Q.No.6 Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phyllum a.porifera b.coelenterata c.ctenophora d.platyhelminthesAns. b.coelenterate*Q.No.7 In ctenophora, the body bears ________ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion a.five b.six c. seven d.eightAns. d.eight*Q.No.8 Flame cells present in platyhelminthes are specialised in a.respiration and absorption b.osmoregulation and circulation c.respiration and excretion d.osmoregulation and excretionAns. d.osmoregulation and excretion*Q.No.9 Polp phase is absent in a.Hydra b.Aurelia c.Physalia d.ObeliaAns. b.Cnidarians*Q.No.10 Which of the following group of animals reproduces only by sexual means? a.Ctenophora b.Cnidaria c.Porifera d.ProtozoaAns. a.Ctenophora
Morphology of Flowering PlantsQ1 the roots that originate from the base of the stem area. fibrous rootsb. primary rootsc. prop rootsd. lateral rootsAns. a. fibrous rootsExplanation: In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a large no. of roots. These roots originate from the base of the stem and constitute the fibrous root system e.g. wheat plantQ2 sweet potato is a modified a. stem b. adventitious rootc. tap rootd. rhizomeAns. b. adventitious rootExplanation: sweet potato (Ipomoea batatas) is swollen single root tuber that does not assume a definite shape. It is a modified adventitious root for shortage of food. Q3 Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water in a. peab wheatc. sunflowerd. pistiaAns. d. pistiaExplanation: Pistia (water lettuce) is a floating aquatic plant. In aquatic plants, roots are generally poorly developed and do not take part in absorption of water. Water is absorbed by the general body surface of these plants.Q4 Pneumatophores are found in a. the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lakeb. the vegetation which found in acidic soilc. xerophytesd. epiphytesAns. a. the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lakeExplanation: these special roots, called pneumatophores or knees, develop in mangrove plants i.e. plants growing in saline marshes. These roots grow vertically upward and are negatively geotropic. Air enters these roots through minute breathing pores called pneumathodes, present on the tips of vertical roots. These plants include Rhizophora, Heritiera, Avicennia, etc. Q5. the plant, which bears clinging roots, is a. screw pineb. podostemonc. trapa d. orchidAns. d. orchidExplanation: Clinging roots arise from the nodes of stem and penetrate the stem of the host plant. It helps in fixing the plant to the host. It is found in orchids. Orchids bear three types of roots - clinging roots for fixation, absorbing roots for absorbing mineral salts and water and epiphytic roots for absorbing moisture from air.Q6 Velamen is found in a. roots of screwpineb. aerial and terrestrial roots of orchidsc. leaves of Ficus elasticad. aerial roots of orchidsAns. d. aerial roots of orchidsExplanation: velamen is found in aerial roots of orchids. In many epiphytic orchids, the aerial roots are covered by a hygroscopic velamen tissue. They absorb water from the atmosphere.Q7 In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of a. adventitious root b. stemc. leafd. stipulesAns. b. stemQ8 Which of the following is not a stem modification?a. Tendrils of cucumberb. Flattened structures of Opuntiac. Pitcher of Nepenthesd. Thorns of citrusAns.c. pitcher of nepenthes
Explanation: Pitcher of Nepenthes is a modification of leaf. In Nepenthes, the pitchers are meant for catching and digesting insects. The lamina is modified into pitcher. The leaf apex gives rise to a coloured lid for attracting the insects.Q9 Stem modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as a. phyllocladesb. scalesc. cladodesd. phyllodesAns. a. phyllocladesExplanation: Phylloclades are flattened green stems which have taken over the function of photosynthesis while cladodes are only the branches of stem that are modified to take over the function of leaves.Q10 An example of edible underground stem is a. carrotb. groundnutc. sweet potatod. potatoAns. d. potatoExplanation: carrot and sweet potato are root modifications while edible part of groundnut is seed. Potato is an edible underground stem.Q11. Sweet potato is homologous to a. potatob. colocasiac. gingerd. turnipAns. d. turnipExplanation: Sweet potato is homologous to turnip as both are having same origin i.e. both are root but modified for different functions. Sweet potato is a modified root for storage and vegetative propagation while turnip is modified for storage only. Q12 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure. a. Opuntiab. Casuarian c. Hydrillad. AcaciaAns. a. OpuntiaExplanation: - Opuntia is a xerophytic plant which lives in dry habitat. The plant has fleshy organs where water and mucilage are stored. The stem is modified into flat green structure, called as phylloclade.Q13. What is the eye of potato?a. Axillary budb. Accessory budc. Adventitious budd. Apical budAns. a. Axillary budExplanation: A tuber is the swollen tip of the underground branch. Tubers are round or oval in shape. Each tuber has many notches on the surface called 'eyes'. These are in fact axillary buds which grow into new plants during favourable conditions. Q14. New Banana plants develop from a. rhizome b. suckerc. stolon d. seedAns. b. suckerExplanation: Suckers are the sub-aerial modification of stem. They grow obliquely upward from the main stem producing roots from the underground nodes. The sucker like structures in banana are also called sword suckers, which give rise to new leafy trunk.
Explanation: Pitcher of Nepenthes is a modification of leaf. In Nepenthes, the pitchers are meant for catching and digesting insects. The lamina is modified into pitcher. The leaf apex gives rise to a coloured lid for attracting the insects.Q9 Stem modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as a. phyllocladesb. scalesc. cladodesd. phyllodesAns. a. phyllocladesExplanation: Phylloclades are flattened green stems which have taken over the function of photosynthesis while cladodes are only the branches of stem that are modified to take over the function of leaves.Q10 An example of edible underground stem is a. carrotb. groundnutc. sweet potatod. potatoAns. d. potatoExplanation: carrot and sweet potato are root modifications while edible part of groundnut is seed. Potato is an edible underground stem.Q11. Sweet potato is homologous to a. potatob. colocasiac. gingerd. turnipAns. d. turnipExplanation: Sweet potato is homologous to turnip as both are having same origin i.e. both are root but modified for different functions. Sweet potato is a modified root for storage and vegetative propagation while turnip is modified for storage only. Q12 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure. a. Opuntiab. Casuarian c. Hydrillad. AcaciaAns. a. OpuntiaExplanation: - Opuntia is a xerophytic plant which lives in dry habitat. The plant has fleshy organs where water and mucilage are stored. The stem is modified into flat green structure, called as phylloclade.Q13. What is the eye of potato?a. Axillary budb. Accessory budc. Adventitious budd. Apical budAns. a. Axillary budExplanation: A tuber is the swollen tip of the underground branch. Tubers are round or oval in shape. Each tuber has many notches on the surface called 'eyes'. These are in fact axillary buds which grow into new plants during favourable conditions. Q14. New Banana plants develop from a. rhizome b. suckerc. stolon d. seedAns. b. suckerExplanation: Suckers are the sub-aerial modification of stem. They grow obliquely upward from the main stem producing roots from the underground nodes. The sucker like structures in banana are also called sword suckers, which give rise to new leafy trunk.
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q1 Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in a. lining of intestineb. ducts of salivary glandsc. proximal convoluted tubule of nephron d. Eustachian tubeAns. c. proximal convoluted tubule of nephron Explanation: The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube - like cells which is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys and its main functions are secretion and absorption. The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has microvilli.Q2 Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified froma. squamous epithelial cellsb. columnar epithelial cellsc. chondrocytesd. compound epithelial cells.Ans. b. columnar epithelial cellsExplanation: Certain cells of columnar epithelial cells contain muscles and are called goblet cells as they look like goblet. Such cells are present in alimentary canal.Q3. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in a. bronchioles and fallopian tubesb. bile duct and bronchiolesc. fallopian tubes and pancreatic ductd. eustachian tube and salivary ductAns. a. bronchioles and fallopian tubesQ4 Match the following cell structure with its characteristic featurei. tight junction 1. cement neighbouring cells together to form sheetii. adhering junction 2. transmit information through chemical to another cellsiii. gap junction 3. establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cellsiv. synaptic junction 4. cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells. select optiona. i-2 ii-4 iii-1 iv-3b. i-4 ii-2 iii-1 iv-3c. i-3 ii-1 iii-4 iv-2 d. i-4 ii-3 iii-1 iv-2Ans. c. i-3 ii-1 iii-4 iv 2Q5 smooth muscles are a. involuntary, fusiform, non-striatedb. voluntary, multinucleate, cylindricalc. involuntary, cylindrical, striatedd. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleateAns.a. involuntary, fusiform, non-striateExplanation: Smooth muscle fibres are elongated and spindle shaped (fusiform). Each fibre contains a single oval nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm (sarcoplasm). In cytoplasm, myofibrils are arranged longitudinally. These fibres lack striations and sarcolemma. However, are enclosed by plasma membrane. Q6. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?a. Transitional epithelium - tip of noseb. cuboidal epithelium - lining of stomachc. smooth muscle - wall of intestined. areolar tissue - tendonsAns. c. smooth muscle - wall of intestineExplanation: Tip of nose has elastic cartilage. Simple columnar epithelium lines the stomach. Tendon is white fibrous connective tissue. Posterior part of intestine has single unit smooth muscle in which all fibres of muscle contract simultaneously as single unit.Q7. The function of the gap junction is to a. separate two cells from each otherb. stop substance from leaking across a tissuec. performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells togetherd. facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.Ans. d. facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules. Explanation: most cells in animal tissues (with the exception of a few terminally differentiated cells such as skeletal muscle cells and blood cells) are in communication with their adjoining cells via gap junctions. At the place where gap junction is present, membranes of two adjacent cells are separated by a uniform narrow gap of about 2-4nm. The gap is spanned by channel forming proteins called connexins, which allow inorganic ions and other small water soluble molecules to pass directly from cytoplasm of one cell to cytoplasm of other cell. Q8 Choose the correctly matched paira. tendon - specialised connective tissueb. adipose - dense connective tissuec. areolar tissue - loose connective tissued. cartilage - loose connective tissueAns. c. areolar tissue - loose connective tissueExplanation: areolar tissue is the most widely distributed loose connective tissue in the body. Tendon is a type of dense connective tissue, adipose tissue is a fat-storing loose connective tissue and cartilage is a specialised connective tissue.Q9 Choose the correctly matched paira. Inner lining of salivary ducts - ciliated epithelium b. moist surface - glandular epithelium c. tubular parts of nephrons - cuboidal epitheliumd. inner surface of bronchioles - squamous epitheliumAns. c. tubular parts of nephrons-cuboidal epitheliumExplanation: inner lining of salivary ducts - simple cuboidal epitheliummoist surface of buccal cavity - non-keratinized stratified squamous epitheliuminner surface of bronchioles - ciliated columnar epitheliumQ12. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of a. ligament b. areolar tissue.c. boned. cartilage.Ans. d. cartilageExplanation: Cartilage is a semi-rigid supportive or skeletal connective tissue in which matrix is solid and made of mucoprotein or proteoglycan called chondrin. It is of four types - hyaline, fibrous, calcified and elastic. Yellow elastic fibrocartilage is found in pinna and external auditory canal of the ear, Eustachian tube, epiglottis and tip of the nose. Its matrix contains numerous yellow fibres which form a network by uniting with one another. Due to the presence of yellow fibres, the cartilage becomes more flexible. Hence, it provides flexibility to these organs. Q14. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in a. eustachian tube and stomach liningb. bronchioles and fallopian tubec. bile duct and oesophagusd. fallopian tube and urethra. Ans. b. bronchioles and fallopian tubeExplanation: The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are present in the nasal passages, oviducts (fallopian tubes), terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo. Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar cells, which bear cilia on the free surface. Q15. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of a. smooth muscle tissueb. squamous epitheliumc. columnar epitheliumd. connective tissueAns. b. Squamous epitheliumexplanation: simple squamous epithelium is composed of large flat cells whose edges fit closely together like the tiles in a floor, hence it is also called pavement epithelium. The nuclei of the cells are flattened and often lie at the centre of the cells and cause bulgings of cells surface. The epithelium lines the blood vessels, lymph vessels, heart, terminal bronchioles, alveoli of the lungs, walls of Bowman's capsules, descending limbs of loop of Henle. In the blood vessels and heart is called endothelium. Q16 Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?(a) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres(b) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle(c) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle(d) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscleAns. b, cExplanation: Smooth muscles are called as involuntary muscles as action of these muscles is controlled by autonomic nervous system i.e., not under the control of animal’s will. Iris of eyes consist of smooth involuntary muscles. Abdominal wall also have smooth muscles. Biceps of upper arm is made of skeletal muscles while heart wall consists of cardiac musclesQ17. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes is(a) glandular (b) ciliated(c) squamous (d) cuboidal. Ans. b. Explanation: The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are present in the nasal passages, oviducts (Fallopian tubes) terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo. Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar cells, which bear cilia on the free surface.Q18. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue(c) neural tissue (d) muscular tissue.Ans. b. epithelial tissueExplanation: Epithelial tissues consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers. The cells are held together by intercellular junctions like tight, adhering and gap junctions.Q19. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in(a) nails (b) ear ossicles(c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae.Ans. cExplanation: Yellow elastic fibrocartilage, a type of skeletal tissue, is found in the pinna, Eustachian tubes, epiglottis and tip of the nose. It is a type of cartilage and due to presence of yellow fibres, it becomes more flexibleQ20. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?(a) Vacuoles and fibres(b) Flagellum and medullary sheath(c) Nucleus and mitochondria(d) Perikaryon and dendritesAns. d. Explanation: Neuron (nerve cell) is one of the basic functional units of the nervous system. Neuron is a cell specialized to transmit electrical nerve impulse and so carry information from one part of the body to another. Each neuron has an enlarged portion, the cell body (perikaryon), containing the nucleus; from the body extend several processes (dendrites) through which impulses enter from their branches. A longer process, the nerve fibre, extends outward and carries impulses away from the cell body. This is normally unbranched except at the nerve ending. The point of contact of one neuron with another is known as a synapse.Q21. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?(a) Thrombocytes (b) Tendon(c) Hyaline cartilage (d) Ciliated epitheliumAns. d.Explanation: Cell junctions come across most frequently in the preparation of ciliated epithelium. A cell junction is a structure within a tissue of a multicellular organism. They consist of protein complexes and provide contact between neighbouring cells, between a cell and the extracellular matrix, or they built up the paracellular barrier of epithelia and control the paracellular transportQ22. Areolar connective tissue joins(a) bones with bones (b) fat body with muscles(c) integument with muscles(d) bones with musclesAns. cExplanation: Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue comprised of a semifluid ground substance containing several kinds of loosely arranged fibres. Its function is to attach the skin to the underlying tissues, to fill the spaces between various organs and thus holds them in place, and surrounds and supports the blood vessels.Q23. Mast cells secrete(a) haemoglobin (b) hippurin(c) myoglobin (d) histamine.Ans. dExplanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions. (2006)24. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?(a) Liver cells (b) Neurons(c) Malpighian layer of the skin(d) Osteocytes (2005)Ans. bExplanation: Neurons are least likely to be replaced by new cells as they have least regeneration power.25. Mast cells of connective tissue contain(a) vasopressin and relaxin(b) heparin and histamine(c) heparin and calcitonin(d) serotonin and melaninAns. b. Explanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions26. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material ?(a) Striated muscle (b) Areolar tissue(c) Stratified epithelium(d) Myelinated nerve fibres Ans. bExplanation: In areolar tissue, there is more intercellular space, so largest quantity of extracellular material is present in this tissue. It contains all cell types and fibres of connective tissue. There is a thin layer of extracellular fluid in stratified epithelium whereas striated muscle is attached with tendons and there is very less amount of extracellular fluid in myelinated nerve fibre.27. Collagen is(a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein(c) lipid (d) carbohydrate. Ans. aExplanation: Collagen is an insoluble fibrous protein found extensively in the connective tissue of skin, tendons and bone. Collagen accounts for over 30% of the total body protein of mammals. Globular proteins have compact rounded molecules and are usually water soluble. Lipid is a diverse group of organic compounds, that are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. Carbohydrates are compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen28. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and for its recovery which cartilage is preferred?(a) Elastic cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilageAns. bExplanation: Nasal septum consists of hyaline cartilage. It is bluish-green and translucent in appearance. It has fewer very fine white fibres in the matrix. This type of cartilage gives flexibility and support at the joints. Elastic, calcified and fibrous cartilages occur in other parts of body29. Which cells do not form layer and remains structurally separate?(a) Epithelial cells (b) Muscle cells(c) Nerve cells (d) Gland cellsAns. cExplanation: Nerve cells are the highly excitable cells, specialized for impulse conduction. They originate from neural plate of embryonic ectoderm and serve as structural and functional units of nervous tissue30. Proteoglycan in cartilages which is a part of polysaccharide is(a) chondroitin (b) ossein(c) casein (d) cartilagin. Ans. aExplanation: Proteoglycans consist of polysaccharide attached with a protein chondroitin. It is present in cartilage as well as in extracellular material. Ossein is a protein present in matrix of bone. Casein is a milk protein31. Characteristic of simple epithelium is that they(a) are arranged indiscriminately(b) make a definite layer(c) continue to divide and help in organ function(d) none of the above.Ans. bExplanation: Simple epithelium consists of a single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane. This makes a definite layer.32. Ligament is a/an(a) inelastic white fibrous tissue(b) modified white fibrous tissue(c) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue(d) none of the above. Ans. CExplanation: Ligament occurs in the form of cords in a modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue and connects bone with a bone. Modified white fibrous tissue is present in the tendons.33. Tendon is made up of(a) yellow fibrous connective tissueb. modified white fibrous tissuec. areolar tissued. adipose tissue.Ans.bExplanation: White fibrous tissue has two forms : cords and sheets. The white fibres run parallel to form cords, called tendons. Tendon attaches a muscle to a bone. It consists of collagen fibres and are therefore inelastic. They ensure that the force exerted by muscular contraction is transmitted to the relevant part of the body to be movedQ34. In mammals, histamine is secreted by(a) lymphocytes (b) mast cells(c) fibroblasts (d) histiocytes. Ans. b.Explanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions.35. Protein present in cartilage is(a) cartilagin (b) ossein(c) chondrin (d) none of these. (1997)Ans. c. Explanation: Chondrin is a protein present in the matrix of cartilage. It forms a constituent of a compound called chondrin sulphate. Chondrin sulphate consists of proteoglycans, that is protein chains bonded to long chains of disaccharide hyaluronic acid.36. Basement membrane is made up of(a) no cell product of epithelial cell(b) epidermal cell only (c) endodermal cell(d) both (b) and (c).Ans. aExplanation: Basement membrane (basal lamina) is a thin sheet of fibrous proteins that underlies and supports the cells of an epithelium, separating this from underlying tissue. Basement membranes are components of the extracellular matrix (= the viscous watery fluid that surrounds cells in animal tissue) and help to regulate passage of materials between epithelial cells and adjacent blood vessels. Each consists of a framework of collagen fibrils within which are glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides) and laminins, which are proteins that bind the basement membrane to neighbouring cells via cell adhesion molecules.37. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium?(a) Columnar (b) Squamous(c) Cuboidal (d) CiliatedAns. a. Explanation: Stratum germinativum (also stratum basale or basal cell layer) is the layer of keratinocytes that lies at Structural Organisation in Animals the base of the epidermis immediately above the dermis. It consists of a single layer of tall, simple columnar epithelial cells lying on a basement membrane. These cells undergo rapid cell division, mitosis to replenish the regular loss of skin by shedding from the surface. About 25% of the cells are melanocytes, which produce melanin which provides pigmentation for skin and hair.38. An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, arranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles, is found to be present at(a) outer surface of ovary(b) inner lining of Fallopian tube(c) inner lining of stomach(d) inner lining of cheeks.Ans. dExplanation: An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, ar- ranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles is known as pseudostratified epithelium. It covers moist surfaces where there is little wear and tear by fric- tion such as inner lining of cheeks39. Hair present in the skin are(a) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells(b) epidermal in origin and made of living cells(c) dermal in origin and made of living cells(d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells.Ans. aExplanation: Each hair is present in a tubular pit called hair follicle which is made up by sinking of epidermis. Living cells are present only at the base of hair i.e. in hair papilla, rest of the hair is dead and is divisible into outer cuticle, middle cortex and inner medulla.40. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is termed as(a) stratum compactum (b) stratum corneum(c) stratum malpighii/stratum germinativum(d) stratum lucidum.Ans. cExplanation: Stratum malpighii/stratum germinativum is the innermost layer of the skin consisting of one celled thick columnar epithelial cells. It lies on the basement layer. Its cells are active and continuously produce new cells by mi- totic division that is why called germinative layer.41. Formation of cartilage bones involves(a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts and resorption by chondroclasts(b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts(c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts only(d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts only.Ans. aExplanation: Bone is an unusual tissue in that it is continu- ally being reconstructed. The osteoblasts secrete bone matrix, whereas the large, much branched, motile, lyso- some-rich, multinucleate cells, called osteoclasts, destroy bone matrix. The twin process of resorption and rescon- struction enables a particular bone to remodel its struc- ture to meet any change in the mechanical requirements of the animal during its development.42. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary(b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary(c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary(d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary.Ans. a
Q1 Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in a. lining of intestineb. ducts of salivary glandsc. proximal convoluted tubule of nephron d. Eustachian tubeAns. c. proximal convoluted tubule of nephron Explanation: The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube - like cells which is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys and its main functions are secretion and absorption. The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has microvilli.Q2 Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified froma. squamous epithelial cellsb. columnar epithelial cellsc. chondrocytesd. compound epithelial cells.Ans. b. columnar epithelial cellsExplanation: Certain cells of columnar epithelial cells contain muscles and are called goblet cells as they look like goblet. Such cells are present in alimentary canal.Q3. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in a. bronchioles and fallopian tubesb. bile duct and bronchiolesc. fallopian tubes and pancreatic ductd. eustachian tube and salivary ductAns. a. bronchioles and fallopian tubesQ4 Match the following cell structure with its characteristic featurei. tight junction 1. cement neighbouring cells together to form sheetii. adhering junction 2. transmit information through chemical to another cellsiii. gap junction 3. establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cellsiv. synaptic junction 4. cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells. select optiona. i-2 ii-4 iii-1 iv-3b. i-4 ii-2 iii-1 iv-3c. i-3 ii-1 iii-4 iv-2 d. i-4 ii-3 iii-1 iv-2Ans. c. i-3 ii-1 iii-4 iv 2Q5 smooth muscles are a. involuntary, fusiform, non-striatedb. voluntary, multinucleate, cylindricalc. involuntary, cylindrical, striatedd. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleateAns.a. involuntary, fusiform, non-striateExplanation: Smooth muscle fibres are elongated and spindle shaped (fusiform). Each fibre contains a single oval nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm (sarcoplasm). In cytoplasm, myofibrils are arranged longitudinally. These fibres lack striations and sarcolemma. However, are enclosed by plasma membrane. Q6. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?a. Transitional epithelium - tip of noseb. cuboidal epithelium - lining of stomachc. smooth muscle - wall of intestined. areolar tissue - tendonsAns. c. smooth muscle - wall of intestineExplanation: Tip of nose has elastic cartilage. Simple columnar epithelium lines the stomach. Tendon is white fibrous connective tissue. Posterior part of intestine has single unit smooth muscle in which all fibres of muscle contract simultaneously as single unit.Q7. The function of the gap junction is to a. separate two cells from each otherb. stop substance from leaking across a tissuec. performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells togetherd. facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.Ans. d. facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules. Explanation: most cells in animal tissues (with the exception of a few terminally differentiated cells such as skeletal muscle cells and blood cells) are in communication with their adjoining cells via gap junctions. At the place where gap junction is present, membranes of two adjacent cells are separated by a uniform narrow gap of about 2-4nm. The gap is spanned by channel forming proteins called connexins, which allow inorganic ions and other small water soluble molecules to pass directly from cytoplasm of one cell to cytoplasm of other cell. Q8 Choose the correctly matched paira. tendon - specialised connective tissueb. adipose - dense connective tissuec. areolar tissue - loose connective tissued. cartilage - loose connective tissueAns. c. areolar tissue - loose connective tissueExplanation: areolar tissue is the most widely distributed loose connective tissue in the body. Tendon is a type of dense connective tissue, adipose tissue is a fat-storing loose connective tissue and cartilage is a specialised connective tissue.Q9 Choose the correctly matched paira. Inner lining of salivary ducts - ciliated epithelium b. moist surface - glandular epithelium c. tubular parts of nephrons - cuboidal epitheliumd. inner surface of bronchioles - squamous epitheliumAns. c. tubular parts of nephrons-cuboidal epitheliumExplanation: inner lining of salivary ducts - simple cuboidal epitheliummoist surface of buccal cavity - non-keratinized stratified squamous epitheliuminner surface of bronchioles - ciliated columnar epitheliumQ12. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of a. ligament b. areolar tissue.c. boned. cartilage.Ans. d. cartilageExplanation: Cartilage is a semi-rigid supportive or skeletal connective tissue in which matrix is solid and made of mucoprotein or proteoglycan called chondrin. It is of four types - hyaline, fibrous, calcified and elastic. Yellow elastic fibrocartilage is found in pinna and external auditory canal of the ear, Eustachian tube, epiglottis and tip of the nose. Its matrix contains numerous yellow fibres which form a network by uniting with one another. Due to the presence of yellow fibres, the cartilage becomes more flexible. Hence, it provides flexibility to these organs. Q14. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in a. eustachian tube and stomach liningb. bronchioles and fallopian tubec. bile duct and oesophagusd. fallopian tube and urethra. Ans. b. bronchioles and fallopian tubeExplanation: The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are present in the nasal passages, oviducts (fallopian tubes), terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo. Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar cells, which bear cilia on the free surface. Q15. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of a. smooth muscle tissueb. squamous epitheliumc. columnar epitheliumd. connective tissueAns. b. Squamous epitheliumexplanation: simple squamous epithelium is composed of large flat cells whose edges fit closely together like the tiles in a floor, hence it is also called pavement epithelium. The nuclei of the cells are flattened and often lie at the centre of the cells and cause bulgings of cells surface. The epithelium lines the blood vessels, lymph vessels, heart, terminal bronchioles, alveoli of the lungs, walls of Bowman's capsules, descending limbs of loop of Henle. In the blood vessels and heart is called endothelium. Q16 Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?(a) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres(b) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle(c) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle(d) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscleAns. b, cExplanation: Smooth muscles are called as involuntary muscles as action of these muscles is controlled by autonomic nervous system i.e., not under the control of animal’s will. Iris of eyes consist of smooth involuntary muscles. Abdominal wall also have smooth muscles. Biceps of upper arm is made of skeletal muscles while heart wall consists of cardiac musclesQ17. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes is(a) glandular (b) ciliated(c) squamous (d) cuboidal. Ans. b. Explanation: The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are present in the nasal passages, oviducts (Fallopian tubes) terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo. Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar cells, which bear cilia on the free surface.Q18. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue(c) neural tissue (d) muscular tissue.Ans. b. epithelial tissueExplanation: Epithelial tissues consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers. The cells are held together by intercellular junctions like tight, adhering and gap junctions.Q19. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in(a) nails (b) ear ossicles(c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae.Ans. cExplanation: Yellow elastic fibrocartilage, a type of skeletal tissue, is found in the pinna, Eustachian tubes, epiglottis and tip of the nose. It is a type of cartilage and due to presence of yellow fibres, it becomes more flexibleQ20. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?(a) Vacuoles and fibres(b) Flagellum and medullary sheath(c) Nucleus and mitochondria(d) Perikaryon and dendritesAns. d. Explanation: Neuron (nerve cell) is one of the basic functional units of the nervous system. Neuron is a cell specialized to transmit electrical nerve impulse and so carry information from one part of the body to another. Each neuron has an enlarged portion, the cell body (perikaryon), containing the nucleus; from the body extend several processes (dendrites) through which impulses enter from their branches. A longer process, the nerve fibre, extends outward and carries impulses away from the cell body. This is normally unbranched except at the nerve ending. The point of contact of one neuron with another is known as a synapse.Q21. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?(a) Thrombocytes (b) Tendon(c) Hyaline cartilage (d) Ciliated epitheliumAns. d.Explanation: Cell junctions come across most frequently in the preparation of ciliated epithelium. A cell junction is a structure within a tissue of a multicellular organism. They consist of protein complexes and provide contact between neighbouring cells, between a cell and the extracellular matrix, or they built up the paracellular barrier of epithelia and control the paracellular transportQ22. Areolar connective tissue joins(a) bones with bones (b) fat body with muscles(c) integument with muscles(d) bones with musclesAns. cExplanation: Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue comprised of a semifluid ground substance containing several kinds of loosely arranged fibres. Its function is to attach the skin to the underlying tissues, to fill the spaces between various organs and thus holds them in place, and surrounds and supports the blood vessels.Q23. Mast cells secrete(a) haemoglobin (b) hippurin(c) myoglobin (d) histamine.Ans. dExplanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions. (2006)24. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?(a) Liver cells (b) Neurons(c) Malpighian layer of the skin(d) Osteocytes (2005)Ans. bExplanation: Neurons are least likely to be replaced by new cells as they have least regeneration power.25. Mast cells of connective tissue contain(a) vasopressin and relaxin(b) heparin and histamine(c) heparin and calcitonin(d) serotonin and melaninAns. b. Explanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions26. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material ?(a) Striated muscle (b) Areolar tissue(c) Stratified epithelium(d) Myelinated nerve fibres Ans. bExplanation: In areolar tissue, there is more intercellular space, so largest quantity of extracellular material is present in this tissue. It contains all cell types and fibres of connective tissue. There is a thin layer of extracellular fluid in stratified epithelium whereas striated muscle is attached with tendons and there is very less amount of extracellular fluid in myelinated nerve fibre.27. Collagen is(a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein(c) lipid (d) carbohydrate. Ans. aExplanation: Collagen is an insoluble fibrous protein found extensively in the connective tissue of skin, tendons and bone. Collagen accounts for over 30% of the total body protein of mammals. Globular proteins have compact rounded molecules and are usually water soluble. Lipid is a diverse group of organic compounds, that are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. Carbohydrates are compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen28. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and for its recovery which cartilage is preferred?(a) Elastic cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilageAns. bExplanation: Nasal septum consists of hyaline cartilage. It is bluish-green and translucent in appearance. It has fewer very fine white fibres in the matrix. This type of cartilage gives flexibility and support at the joints. Elastic, calcified and fibrous cartilages occur in other parts of body29. Which cells do not form layer and remains structurally separate?(a) Epithelial cells (b) Muscle cells(c) Nerve cells (d) Gland cellsAns. cExplanation: Nerve cells are the highly excitable cells, specialized for impulse conduction. They originate from neural plate of embryonic ectoderm and serve as structural and functional units of nervous tissue30. Proteoglycan in cartilages which is a part of polysaccharide is(a) chondroitin (b) ossein(c) casein (d) cartilagin. Ans. aExplanation: Proteoglycans consist of polysaccharide attached with a protein chondroitin. It is present in cartilage as well as in extracellular material. Ossein is a protein present in matrix of bone. Casein is a milk protein31. Characteristic of simple epithelium is that they(a) are arranged indiscriminately(b) make a definite layer(c) continue to divide and help in organ function(d) none of the above.Ans. bExplanation: Simple epithelium consists of a single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane. This makes a definite layer.32. Ligament is a/an(a) inelastic white fibrous tissue(b) modified white fibrous tissue(c) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue(d) none of the above. Ans. CExplanation: Ligament occurs in the form of cords in a modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue and connects bone with a bone. Modified white fibrous tissue is present in the tendons.33. Tendon is made up of(a) yellow fibrous connective tissueb. modified white fibrous tissuec. areolar tissued. adipose tissue.Ans.bExplanation: White fibrous tissue has two forms : cords and sheets. The white fibres run parallel to form cords, called tendons. Tendon attaches a muscle to a bone. It consists of collagen fibres and are therefore inelastic. They ensure that the force exerted by muscular contraction is transmitted to the relevant part of the body to be movedQ34. In mammals, histamine is secreted by(a) lymphocytes (b) mast cells(c) fibroblasts (d) histiocytes. Ans. b.Explanation: Mast cells are granulated wandering cells that are found in connective tissue. Their granules contain histamine which is a vasodilator. It causes running nose, sneezing and itching; and narrows the airways in the lungs. Their granules also contain heparin which is an anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of inflammation and allergic reactions.35. Protein present in cartilage is(a) cartilagin (b) ossein(c) chondrin (d) none of these. (1997)Ans. c. Explanation: Chondrin is a protein present in the matrix of cartilage. It forms a constituent of a compound called chondrin sulphate. Chondrin sulphate consists of proteoglycans, that is protein chains bonded to long chains of disaccharide hyaluronic acid.36. Basement membrane is made up of(a) no cell product of epithelial cell(b) epidermal cell only (c) endodermal cell(d) both (b) and (c).Ans. aExplanation: Basement membrane (basal lamina) is a thin sheet of fibrous proteins that underlies and supports the cells of an epithelium, separating this from underlying tissue. Basement membranes are components of the extracellular matrix (= the viscous watery fluid that surrounds cells in animal tissue) and help to regulate passage of materials between epithelial cells and adjacent blood vessels. Each consists of a framework of collagen fibrils within which are glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides) and laminins, which are proteins that bind the basement membrane to neighbouring cells via cell adhesion molecules.37. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium?(a) Columnar (b) Squamous(c) Cuboidal (d) CiliatedAns. a. Explanation: Stratum germinativum (also stratum basale or basal cell layer) is the layer of keratinocytes that lies at Structural Organisation in Animals the base of the epidermis immediately above the dermis. It consists of a single layer of tall, simple columnar epithelial cells lying on a basement membrane. These cells undergo rapid cell division, mitosis to replenish the regular loss of skin by shedding from the surface. About 25% of the cells are melanocytes, which produce melanin which provides pigmentation for skin and hair.38. An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, arranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles, is found to be present at(a) outer surface of ovary(b) inner lining of Fallopian tube(c) inner lining of stomach(d) inner lining of cheeks.Ans. dExplanation: An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, ar- ranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles is known as pseudostratified epithelium. It covers moist surfaces where there is little wear and tear by fric- tion such as inner lining of cheeks39. Hair present in the skin are(a) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells(b) epidermal in origin and made of living cells(c) dermal in origin and made of living cells(d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells.Ans. aExplanation: Each hair is present in a tubular pit called hair follicle which is made up by sinking of epidermis. Living cells are present only at the base of hair i.e. in hair papilla, rest of the hair is dead and is divisible into outer cuticle, middle cortex and inner medulla.40. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is termed as(a) stratum compactum (b) stratum corneum(c) stratum malpighii/stratum germinativum(d) stratum lucidum.Ans. cExplanation: Stratum malpighii/stratum germinativum is the innermost layer of the skin consisting of one celled thick columnar epithelial cells. It lies on the basement layer. Its cells are active and continuously produce new cells by mi- totic division that is why called germinative layer.41. Formation of cartilage bones involves(a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts and resorption by chondroclasts(b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts(c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts only(d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts only.Ans. aExplanation: Bone is an unusual tissue in that it is continu- ally being reconstructed. The osteoblasts secrete bone matrix, whereas the large, much branched, motile, lyso- some-rich, multinucleate cells, called osteoclasts, destroy bone matrix. The twin process of resorption and rescon- struction enables a particular bone to remodel its struc- ture to meet any change in the mechanical requirements of the animal during its development.42. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary(b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary(c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary(d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary.Ans. a
Cell : the Unit of life***
1. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because(a) the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons(b) the resolving power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope(c) the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 - 350 nm as compared to 0.1 - 0.2 nm for the light microscope(d) electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.Ans.2. A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X objective. He should illuminate the object by which one of the following colours of light so as to get the best possible resolution?(a) Blue (b) Green(c) Yellow (d) RedAns.3. Electron microscope has a high resolution power.This is due to(a) electromagnetic lenses(b) very low wavelength of electron beam(c) low wavelength of light source used(d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used.Ans.Q4. Magnification of compound microscope is not connected with(a) numerical aperture(b) focal length of objective(c) focal length of eye piece(d) tube length. (1990)Ans.Q5. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e-cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by(a) Aristotle (b) Rudolf Virchow(c) Theodore Schwann (d) Schleiden.Ans.Q6. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure?(a) It needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chloroplasts and mitochondria.(b) Modified cell theory means that all living being are composed of cells capable of reproducing.(c) Cell theory does not hold good because all living beings (e.g., viruses) do not have cellular organisation.(d) Cell theory means that all living objects consists of cells whether or not capable of reproducing.Ans.Q7. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are associated with(a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life(b) cell theory(c) theory of cell lineage(d) nucleus functions as control centre of cell.Ans.Q8. Angstrom (Å) is equal to(a) 0.01 mm(b) 0.001 mm(c) 0.0001 mm(d) 0.00001 mm. Ans.Q9. Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate through(a) chromatography (b) X-rays diffraction(c) differential centrifugation(d) auto-radiography. (1989)Ans.Q10. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?(a) They are not bound by any membrane.(b) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.(c) They lie free in the cytoplasm.(d) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.Ans.Q11. Select the wrong statement.(a) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
21. The site of respiration in bacteria is(a) ribosome (b) microsome(b) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.(c) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.(d) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism.Ans.Q12. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?(a) Mesosome (b) Plasma membrane(c) Nuclear envelope (d) Ribosome (2015)13. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are(a) mesosomes (b) holdfast(c) rhizoids (d) fimbriae. (2015)14. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?(a) Glycogen granule (b) Polysome(c) Phosphate granule(d) Cyanophycean granule (2015 Cancelled)15. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes(c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes (2014)16. The motile bacteria are able to move by(a) fimbriae (b) flagella(c) cilia (d) pili. (2014)17. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?(a) It protects the bacterium from desiccation.(b) It provides means of locomotion.(c) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s immune system.(d) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface.(Karnataka NEET 2013)18. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for(a) a layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria(b) cell wall of bacteria(c) bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins(d) a layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria.(Karnataka NEET 2013)19. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in (c) episome (d) mesosome. (1997)Eukaryotic Cells22. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?(a) Endoplasmic reticulum(b) Peroxisomes (c) Golgi bodies(d) Polysomes (NEET 2020)23. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.(b) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.(c) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.(d) Lysosomes are membrane-bound structures.(NEET 2019)24. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?(a) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.(b) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.(c) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.(d) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.(NEET 2019)25. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as(a) m-arm and n-arm respectively(b) s-arm and l-arm respectively(c) p-arm and q-arm respectively(d) q-arm and p-arm respectively. (NEET 2019)26. Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?(a) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria(b) Mitochondria and Lysosome(c) Chloroplast and Vacuoles(d) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (NEET 2019)27. Match the column I with column II.Column-I Column-IIA. Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of proteinB. Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and excretory number and(a) are always circular (b) are always linear(c) can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell(d) can be circular as well as linear within the same C. Vacuoles
D. Ribosomes products(iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids(iv) Digesting biomolecules cell. (2003)20. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in(a) chromoplasts (b) chromatophores(c) leucoplasts (d) chloroplasts. (1999) Choose the right match from options given below.(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)(d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (Odisha NEET 2019) 94 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology 28. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?(a) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.(b) It is a membrane-bound structure.(c) It takes part in spindle formation.(d) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.(NEET 2018)29. The Golgi complex participates in(a) fatty acid breakdown(b) formation of secretory vesicles(c) respiration in bacteria(d) activation of amino acid. (NEET 2018)30. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?(a) Protein folding (b) Protein glycosylation(c) Cleavage of signal peptide(d) Phospholipid synthesis (NEET 2018)31. Select the incorrect match.(a) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes(b) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes(c) Sub-metacentric – L-shaped chromosomes chromosomes(d) Polytene – Oocytes ofchromosomes amphibians (NEET 2018)32. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast(c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome(NEET 2017)33. Select the mismatch.(a) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria(b) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells(c) Protists – Eukaryotes(d) Methanogens – Prokaryotes (NEET-II 2016)34. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is(a) lysosome (b) microsome(c) ribosome (d) mesosome.(NEET-II 2016)35. Mitochondria and chloroplast are(A) semi-autonomous organelles(B) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery.Which one of the following options is correct?(a) (A) is true but (B) is false.(b) Both (A) and (B) are false.(c) Both (A) and (B) are correct.(d) (B) is true but (A) is false. (NEET-I 2016)36. Microtubules are the constituents of(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia.(NEET-I 2016) 37. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?(a) Lysosomes (b) Nuclei(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplasts(NEET-I 2016)38. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are(a) carotenoids (b) anthocyanins(c) xanthophylls (d) chlorophylls.(NEET-I 2016)39. Match the columns and identify the correct option.Column I Column IIA. Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in GolgiapparatusB. Cristae (ii) Condensed structure ofDNAC. Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs instromaD. Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (2015)40. Cellular organelles with membranes are(a) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei(b) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria(c) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria(d) chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum. (2015)41. Which of the following are not membrane bound?(a) Lysosomes (b) Mesosomes(c) Vacuoles (d) Ribosomes (2015)42. DNA is not present in(a) nucleus (b) mitochondria(c) chloroplast (d) ribosomes.(2015 Cancelled)43. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of(a) microtubules(b) rough endoplasmic reticulum(c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(d) membrane of Golgi complex. (2015 Cancelled)44. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are(a) stroma lamellae (b) stroma(c) cristae (d) grana.(2015 Cancelled)45. Select the correct matching in the following pairs.(a) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen(b) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids(c) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids(d) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids(2015 Cancelled) Cell- The Unit of Life46. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are(a) telocentric (b) sub-metacentric(c) metacentric (d) acrocentric.(2015 Cancelled)47. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as 9554. Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle ‘A’ in the diagram.(a) Mitochondria - Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP(b) Golgi body - Provides packaging Amaterial(c) Lysosomes - Secrete hydrolytic enzymes (a) microtubules (b) microfilaments(c) intermediate filaments(d) lamins. (2014)48. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by(a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles(c) plastids (d) ribosomes. (2014)49. Match the following and select the correct answer.(A) Centriole (i) lnfoldings in mitochondria(B) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids(C) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids(D) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body of ciliaor flagellaA B C D(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 50. The Golgi complex plays a major role(a) as energy transferring organelles(b) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosylation of lipids(c) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy(d) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates.51. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?(a) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins(d) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis 52. A major site for synthesis of lipids is(a) symplast (b) nucleoplasm(c) RER (d) SER 53. Which of the following types of plastid does not contain stored food material?(a) Chromoplasts (b) Elaioplasts(c) Aleuroplasts (d) Amyloplasts(d) Endoplasmic reticulum - Synthesis of lipids55. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.(a) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport.(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.(c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.(d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson. (2012)56. What is true about ribosomes?(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient.(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells.(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.(2012)57. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coliand Chlamydomonas?(a) Ribosomes(b) Chromosomal organization(c) Cell wall (d) Cell membrane (2012)58. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?(a) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts(b) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis(c) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S)(d) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about8.5 (Mains 2012)59. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?(a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome(c) ER (d) Mesosome(Mains 2012)60. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria(c) chromoplast (d) ribosomes. (2011)61. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is(a) vacuole (b) Golgi apparatus(c) plastid (d) lysosome. (2011) 96 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology62. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome(c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome(Mains 2011)63. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled A, B, C and D. Select the part correctly matched with its function.
(a) D (outer membrane) – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting(b) B (inner membrane) – forms infoldings called cristae(c) C (crista) – possesses single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes(d) A (matrix) – major site for respiratory chain enzymes (Mains 2011)64. The plasma membrane consists mainly of(a) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer(b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer(c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer.(2010)65. The main area of various types of activities of a cell is(a) plasma membrane (b) mitochondrion(c) cytoplasm (d) nucleus. (2010)66. Which one of the following has its own DNA?(a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome(c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome (2010)67. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?(a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones(c) Endoplasmic reticulum(d) Plasmalemma (2010)68. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called(a) thylakoid(b) endoplasmic reticulum(c) plasmalemma(d) cytoskeleton. (Mains 2010)69. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given along with Components :(i) Cristae of mitochondria(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria(iii) Cytoplasm(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum(vi) Mitochondrial matrix(vii) Cell vacuole(viii) NucleusThe correct components are:A B C D(a) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)(b) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)(c) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)(d) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (Mains 2010)70. Middle lamella is composed mainly of(a) muramic acid (b) calcium pectate(c) phosphoglycerides (d) hemicellulose. (2009)71. Cytoskeleton is made up of(a) callose deposits (b) cellulosic microfibrils(c) proteinaceous filaments(d) calcium carbonate granules. 72. Plasmodesmata are(a) locomotory structures(b) membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma(c) connections between adjacent cells(d) lignified cemented layers between cells. 73. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the(a) peroxisomes (b) mitochondria(c) proplastids (d) glyoxysomes. 74. Vacuole in a plant cell(a) lacks membrane and contains air(b) lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances(c) is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids(d) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances. 75. Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statement is correct with respect to the movements of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?(a) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not(b) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop(c) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop(d) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot. 76. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?(a) Glycolipids (b) Proline(c) Phospholipids (d) Cholesterol 77. Select the wrong statement from the following.(a) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane.(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.(c) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane. 78. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?(a) The outer membrane resembles a sieve.(b) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.(c) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.(d) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings. 79. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct ?(a) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet microtubules.(b) The organised beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane.(c) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.(d) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin. 80. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in(a) grana (b) pyrenoid(c) stroma(d) both grana and stroma. 81. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?(a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.(c) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane.82. Centromere is required for(a) movement of chromosomes towards poles(b) cytoplasmic cleavage(c) crossing over (d) transcription. 83. The main organelle involved in modification and outing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria(c) lysosome(d) endoplasmic reticulum. 84. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of(a) thymine rich repeats (b) cytosine rich repeats(c) adenine rich repeats (d) guanine rich repeats. 85. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the(a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane(c) thylakoids (d) stroma. 86. Ribosomes are produced in(a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm(c) mitochondria (d) Golgi body. 87. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane(a) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic(b) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part(d) proteins form a middle layer 88. Element necessary for the middle lamella is(a) Ca (b) Zn(c) K (d) Cu. 89. Microtubules are absent in(a) mitochondria (b) flagella(c) spindle fibres (d) centrioles. 90. Lysosome contains(a) oxidative enzymes (b) hydrolytic enzymes(c) reductive enzymes (d) anabolic enzymes. 91. Which of the following ribosomes are engaged in protein synthesis in animal cell?(a) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane and ER(b) Ribosomes of only cytosol(c) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol(d) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and cytosol 92. Function of telomeres in nucleus is(a) poleward movement(b) to initiate the RNA synthesis(c) to seal the ends of chromosome(d) to recognise the homologous chromosome.Q97(d) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.98 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology 93. Which cell organelle is concerned with glycosylation of protein?(a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome(c) Endoplasmic reticulum(d) Mitochondria (2000)94. Which of the following organelles has single membrane?(a) Mitochondria (b) Spherosomes(c) Nucleus (d) Cell wall (1999)95. The proteins are synthesised at(a) centrosomes (b) Golgi bodies(c) ribosomes (d) mitochondria. (1999)96. Lysosomes are rich in(a) nucleic acids (b) hydrolytic enzymes(c) carbohydrates (d) hormones. (1996)97. The desmosomes are concerned with(a) cell division (b) cell adherence(c) cytolysis (d) cellular excretion.(1995)98. Which of the following organelles contain enzymes that have digestive action?(a) Ribosomes (b) Polysomes(c) Plastids (d) Lysosomes (1994)99. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for(a) protein synthesis(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins(c) breakdown of macromolecules(d) oxidation-reduction reaction. (1994)100. Centromere is required for(a) replication of DNA(b) chromosome segregation(c) poleward movement of chromosomes(d) cytoplasmic cleavage. (1994)101. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus and contains a collection of flattened membrane bound cisternae?(a) Nucleolus (b) Mitochondrion(c) Centriole (d) Golgi apparatus(1994)102. The inner membrane of the mitochondria is, usually, highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings known as(a) thylakoids (b) lamellae(c) cristae (d) grana. (1994)103. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of(a) lysosomes (b) plastids(c) grana of chloroplasts(d) cell plates after cell division in plants. (1994)104. Active and passive transports across cell membrane differ in(a) passive transport is nonselective (b) passive transport is along the concentration gradient while active transport is due to metabolic energy(c) active transport is more rapid(d) passive transport is confined to anions while active transport is confined to cations. (1993)105. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of(a) DNA replication(b) RNA and protein synthesis(c) synthesis of polysaccharides(d) synthesis of lipids. (1993)106. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with(a) photorespiration (b) phototropism(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis.(1993)107. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes which is used for controlling intracellular digestion of macromolecules is(a) endoplasmic reticulum(b) nucleosome (c) lysosome(d) phagosome. (1993)108. Golgi apparatus is absent in(a) higher plants (b) yeast(c) bacteria and blue-green algae(d) none. (1993)109. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of cell membranes named(a) proteins (b) lipids(c) proteins and lipids(d) glycoproteins and glycolipids. (1993)110. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene chromosomes, pairing is(a) absent (b) occasional(c) formed between non-homologous chromosomes(d) formed between homologous chromosomes.(1993)Q111. All types of plastids possess essentially the same structure because they(a) perform the same function(b) store food materials like starch, fat and protein(c) occur in aerial parts(d) can transform from one form to another. Ans.Q112.Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of(a) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation(b) nucleus in heredity(c) chromosomes in heredity(d) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio. Ans.(b) nucleus in heredityQ113. Which one is apparato reticolare?(a) Golgi apparatus(b) Endoplasmic reticulum(c) Microfilaments(d) MicrotubulesAns.(a) Golgi apparatusQ114. An outer covering membrane is absent over(a) nucleolus (b) lysosome(c) mitochondrion (d) plastid. Ans. (a) nucleolus Q115. All plastids have similar structure because they can(a) store starch, lipids and proteins(b) get transformed from one type to another(c) perform same function(d) be present together. Ans.(b) get transformed from one type to anotherQ116. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on(a) thylakoids(b) mitochondrial surface(c) inner mitochondrial membrane(d) chloroplast surface. Ans. (c) inner mitochondrial membraneQ117. Ribosomes are the centre for(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis(c) protein synthesis (d) fat synthesis. Ans.(c) protein synthesisQ118. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?(a) DNA (b) RNA(c) Chloroplasts (d) Sphaerosomes Ans. (b) RNAQ119. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is(a) deposition (b) apposition(c) intussusception (d) aggregation. Ans. (c) intussusceptionQ120. Cell wall shows(a) complete permeability(b) semipermeability(c) differential permeability(d) impermeability.Ans.(a) complete permeabilityQ121. Ribosomes were discovered by(a) Golgi (b) Porter(c) de Robertis (d) Palade.Ans. d. PaladeQ122.Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was put forward by(a) Danielli and Davson (b) Singer and Nicolson(c) Garner and Allard (d) Watson and Crick.Ans. (b) Singer and NicolsonQ123. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia involved exchanging(a) cytoplasm (b) nucleus(c) rhizoid and stalk (d) gametes. Ans.(c) rhizoid and stalk Q124. The latest model for plasma membrane is(a) lamellar model(b) unit membrane model(c) fluid mosaic model(d) molecular lipid model.Ans.(c) fluid mosaic modelQ125. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in(a) nucleoplasm (b) nuclear envelope(c) nucleolus (d) cytoplasm. Ans. (d) cytoplasm.Q126. Polyribosomes are aggregates of(a) ribosomes and rRNA(b) only rRNA (c) peroxisomes(d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA. Ans.(d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA.Q127. Plasma membrane is made of(a) proteins and carbohydrates(b) proteins and lipids(c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates(d) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids. Ans. (c) proteins, lipids and carbohydratesQ128. Acetabularia. used in Hammerling’s nucleocytoplasmic experiments is(a) unicellular fungus (b) multicellular fungus(c) unicellular uninucleate green algae(d) unicellular multinucleate green algae.Ans.(c) unicellular uninucleate green algae
Q129. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of(a) phospholipids and oligosaccharides(b) phospholipids and hemicellulose(c) phospholipids and integral proteins(d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins.Ans. (d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins.
1. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because(a) the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons(b) the resolving power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope(c) the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 - 350 nm as compared to 0.1 - 0.2 nm for the light microscope(d) electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.Ans.2. A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X objective. He should illuminate the object by which one of the following colours of light so as to get the best possible resolution?(a) Blue (b) Green(c) Yellow (d) RedAns.3. Electron microscope has a high resolution power.This is due to(a) electromagnetic lenses(b) very low wavelength of electron beam(c) low wavelength of light source used(d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used.Ans.Q4. Magnification of compound microscope is not connected with(a) numerical aperture(b) focal length of objective(c) focal length of eye piece(d) tube length. (1990)Ans.Q5. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e-cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by(a) Aristotle (b) Rudolf Virchow(c) Theodore Schwann (d) Schleiden.Ans.Q6. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure?(a) It needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chloroplasts and mitochondria.(b) Modified cell theory means that all living being are composed of cells capable of reproducing.(c) Cell theory does not hold good because all living beings (e.g., viruses) do not have cellular organisation.(d) Cell theory means that all living objects consists of cells whether or not capable of reproducing.Ans.Q7. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are associated with(a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life(b) cell theory(c) theory of cell lineage(d) nucleus functions as control centre of cell.Ans.Q8. Angstrom (Å) is equal to(a) 0.01 mm(b) 0.001 mm(c) 0.0001 mm(d) 0.00001 mm. Ans.Q9. Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate through(a) chromatography (b) X-rays diffraction(c) differential centrifugation(d) auto-radiography. (1989)Ans.Q10. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?(a) They are not bound by any membrane.(b) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.(c) They lie free in the cytoplasm.(d) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.Ans.Q11. Select the wrong statement.(a) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
21. The site of respiration in bacteria is(a) ribosome (b) microsome(b) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.(c) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.(d) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism.Ans.Q12. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?(a) Mesosome (b) Plasma membrane(c) Nuclear envelope (d) Ribosome (2015)13. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are(a) mesosomes (b) holdfast(c) rhizoids (d) fimbriae. (2015)14. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?(a) Glycogen granule (b) Polysome(c) Phosphate granule(d) Cyanophycean granule (2015 Cancelled)15. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes(c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes (2014)16. The motile bacteria are able to move by(a) fimbriae (b) flagella(c) cilia (d) pili. (2014)17. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?(a) It protects the bacterium from desiccation.(b) It provides means of locomotion.(c) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s immune system.(d) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface.(Karnataka NEET 2013)18. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for(a) a layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria(b) cell wall of bacteria(c) bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins(d) a layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria.(Karnataka NEET 2013)19. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in (c) episome (d) mesosome. (1997)Eukaryotic Cells22. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?(a) Endoplasmic reticulum(b) Peroxisomes (c) Golgi bodies(d) Polysomes (NEET 2020)23. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.(b) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.(c) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.(d) Lysosomes are membrane-bound structures.(NEET 2019)24. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?(a) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.(b) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.(c) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.(d) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.(NEET 2019)25. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as(a) m-arm and n-arm respectively(b) s-arm and l-arm respectively(c) p-arm and q-arm respectively(d) q-arm and p-arm respectively. (NEET 2019)26. Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?(a) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria(b) Mitochondria and Lysosome(c) Chloroplast and Vacuoles(d) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (NEET 2019)27. Match the column I with column II.Column-I Column-IIA. Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of proteinB. Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and excretory number and(a) are always circular (b) are always linear(c) can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell(d) can be circular as well as linear within the same C. Vacuoles
D. Ribosomes products(iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids(iv) Digesting biomolecules cell. (2003)20. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in(a) chromoplasts (b) chromatophores(c) leucoplasts (d) chloroplasts. (1999) Choose the right match from options given below.(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)(d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (Odisha NEET 2019) 94 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology 28. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?(a) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.(b) It is a membrane-bound structure.(c) It takes part in spindle formation.(d) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.(NEET 2018)29. The Golgi complex participates in(a) fatty acid breakdown(b) formation of secretory vesicles(c) respiration in bacteria(d) activation of amino acid. (NEET 2018)30. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?(a) Protein folding (b) Protein glycosylation(c) Cleavage of signal peptide(d) Phospholipid synthesis (NEET 2018)31. Select the incorrect match.(a) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes(b) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes(c) Sub-metacentric – L-shaped chromosomes chromosomes(d) Polytene – Oocytes ofchromosomes amphibians (NEET 2018)32. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast(c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome(NEET 2017)33. Select the mismatch.(a) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria(b) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells(c) Protists – Eukaryotes(d) Methanogens – Prokaryotes (NEET-II 2016)34. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is(a) lysosome (b) microsome(c) ribosome (d) mesosome.(NEET-II 2016)35. Mitochondria and chloroplast are(A) semi-autonomous organelles(B) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery.Which one of the following options is correct?(a) (A) is true but (B) is false.(b) Both (A) and (B) are false.(c) Both (A) and (B) are correct.(d) (B) is true but (A) is false. (NEET-I 2016)36. Microtubules are the constituents of(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia.(NEET-I 2016) 37. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?(a) Lysosomes (b) Nuclei(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplasts(NEET-I 2016)38. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are(a) carotenoids (b) anthocyanins(c) xanthophylls (d) chlorophylls.(NEET-I 2016)39. Match the columns and identify the correct option.Column I Column IIA. Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in GolgiapparatusB. Cristae (ii) Condensed structure ofDNAC. Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs instromaD. Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (2015)40. Cellular organelles with membranes are(a) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei(b) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria(c) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria(d) chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum. (2015)41. Which of the following are not membrane bound?(a) Lysosomes (b) Mesosomes(c) Vacuoles (d) Ribosomes (2015)42. DNA is not present in(a) nucleus (b) mitochondria(c) chloroplast (d) ribosomes.(2015 Cancelled)43. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of(a) microtubules(b) rough endoplasmic reticulum(c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(d) membrane of Golgi complex. (2015 Cancelled)44. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are(a) stroma lamellae (b) stroma(c) cristae (d) grana.(2015 Cancelled)45. Select the correct matching in the following pairs.(a) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen(b) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids(c) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids(d) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids(2015 Cancelled) Cell- The Unit of Life46. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are(a) telocentric (b) sub-metacentric(c) metacentric (d) acrocentric.(2015 Cancelled)47. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as 9554. Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle ‘A’ in the diagram.(a) Mitochondria - Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP(b) Golgi body - Provides packaging Amaterial(c) Lysosomes - Secrete hydrolytic enzymes (a) microtubules (b) microfilaments(c) intermediate filaments(d) lamins. (2014)48. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by(a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles(c) plastids (d) ribosomes. (2014)49. Match the following and select the correct answer.(A) Centriole (i) lnfoldings in mitochondria(B) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids(C) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids(D) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body of ciliaor flagellaA B C D(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 50. The Golgi complex plays a major role(a) as energy transferring organelles(b) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosylation of lipids(c) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy(d) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates.51. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?(a) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins(d) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis 52. A major site for synthesis of lipids is(a) symplast (b) nucleoplasm(c) RER (d) SER 53. Which of the following types of plastid does not contain stored food material?(a) Chromoplasts (b) Elaioplasts(c) Aleuroplasts (d) Amyloplasts(d) Endoplasmic reticulum - Synthesis of lipids55. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.(a) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport.(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.(c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.(d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson. (2012)56. What is true about ribosomes?(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient.(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells.(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.(2012)57. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coliand Chlamydomonas?(a) Ribosomes(b) Chromosomal organization(c) Cell wall (d) Cell membrane (2012)58. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?(a) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts(b) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis(c) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S)(d) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about8.5 (Mains 2012)59. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?(a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome(c) ER (d) Mesosome(Mains 2012)60. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria(c) chromoplast (d) ribosomes. (2011)61. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is(a) vacuole (b) Golgi apparatus(c) plastid (d) lysosome. (2011) 96 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology62. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome(c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome(Mains 2011)63. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled A, B, C and D. Select the part correctly matched with its function.
(a) D (outer membrane) – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting(b) B (inner membrane) – forms infoldings called cristae(c) C (crista) – possesses single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes(d) A (matrix) – major site for respiratory chain enzymes (Mains 2011)64. The plasma membrane consists mainly of(a) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer(b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer(c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer.(2010)65. The main area of various types of activities of a cell is(a) plasma membrane (b) mitochondrion(c) cytoplasm (d) nucleus. (2010)66. Which one of the following has its own DNA?(a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome(c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome (2010)67. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?(a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones(c) Endoplasmic reticulum(d) Plasmalemma (2010)68. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called(a) thylakoid(b) endoplasmic reticulum(c) plasmalemma(d) cytoskeleton. (Mains 2010)69. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given along with Components :(i) Cristae of mitochondria(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria(iii) Cytoplasm(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum(vi) Mitochondrial matrix(vii) Cell vacuole(viii) NucleusThe correct components are:A B C D(a) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)(b) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)(c) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)(d) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (Mains 2010)70. Middle lamella is composed mainly of(a) muramic acid (b) calcium pectate(c) phosphoglycerides (d) hemicellulose. (2009)71. Cytoskeleton is made up of(a) callose deposits (b) cellulosic microfibrils(c) proteinaceous filaments(d) calcium carbonate granules. 72. Plasmodesmata are(a) locomotory structures(b) membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma(c) connections between adjacent cells(d) lignified cemented layers between cells. 73. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the(a) peroxisomes (b) mitochondria(c) proplastids (d) glyoxysomes. 74. Vacuole in a plant cell(a) lacks membrane and contains air(b) lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances(c) is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids(d) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances. 75. Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statement is correct with respect to the movements of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?(a) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not(b) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop(c) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop(d) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot. 76. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?(a) Glycolipids (b) Proline(c) Phospholipids (d) Cholesterol 77. Select the wrong statement from the following.(a) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane.(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.(c) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane. 78. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?(a) The outer membrane resembles a sieve.(b) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules.(c) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.(d) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings. 79. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct ?(a) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet microtubules.(b) The organised beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane.(c) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.(d) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin. 80. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in(a) grana (b) pyrenoid(c) stroma(d) both grana and stroma. 81. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?(a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer.(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer.(c) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane.82. Centromere is required for(a) movement of chromosomes towards poles(b) cytoplasmic cleavage(c) crossing over (d) transcription. 83. The main organelle involved in modification and outing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria(c) lysosome(d) endoplasmic reticulum. 84. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of(a) thymine rich repeats (b) cytosine rich repeats(c) adenine rich repeats (d) guanine rich repeats. 85. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the(a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane(c) thylakoids (d) stroma. 86. Ribosomes are produced in(a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm(c) mitochondria (d) Golgi body. 87. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane(a) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic(b) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part(d) proteins form a middle layer 88. Element necessary for the middle lamella is(a) Ca (b) Zn(c) K (d) Cu. 89. Microtubules are absent in(a) mitochondria (b) flagella(c) spindle fibres (d) centrioles. 90. Lysosome contains(a) oxidative enzymes (b) hydrolytic enzymes(c) reductive enzymes (d) anabolic enzymes. 91. Which of the following ribosomes are engaged in protein synthesis in animal cell?(a) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane and ER(b) Ribosomes of only cytosol(c) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol(d) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and cytosol 92. Function of telomeres in nucleus is(a) poleward movement(b) to initiate the RNA synthesis(c) to seal the ends of chromosome(d) to recognise the homologous chromosome.Q97(d) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.98 NEET-AIPMT Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions Biology 93. Which cell organelle is concerned with glycosylation of protein?(a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome(c) Endoplasmic reticulum(d) Mitochondria (2000)94. Which of the following organelles has single membrane?(a) Mitochondria (b) Spherosomes(c) Nucleus (d) Cell wall (1999)95. The proteins are synthesised at(a) centrosomes (b) Golgi bodies(c) ribosomes (d) mitochondria. (1999)96. Lysosomes are rich in(a) nucleic acids (b) hydrolytic enzymes(c) carbohydrates (d) hormones. (1996)97. The desmosomes are concerned with(a) cell division (b) cell adherence(c) cytolysis (d) cellular excretion.(1995)98. Which of the following organelles contain enzymes that have digestive action?(a) Ribosomes (b) Polysomes(c) Plastids (d) Lysosomes (1994)99. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for(a) protein synthesis(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins(c) breakdown of macromolecules(d) oxidation-reduction reaction. (1994)100. Centromere is required for(a) replication of DNA(b) chromosome segregation(c) poleward movement of chromosomes(d) cytoplasmic cleavage. (1994)101. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus and contains a collection of flattened membrane bound cisternae?(a) Nucleolus (b) Mitochondrion(c) Centriole (d) Golgi apparatus(1994)102. The inner membrane of the mitochondria is, usually, highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings known as(a) thylakoids (b) lamellae(c) cristae (d) grana. (1994)103. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of(a) lysosomes (b) plastids(c) grana of chloroplasts(d) cell plates after cell division in plants. (1994)104. Active and passive transports across cell membrane differ in(a) passive transport is nonselective (b) passive transport is along the concentration gradient while active transport is due to metabolic energy(c) active transport is more rapid(d) passive transport is confined to anions while active transport is confined to cations. (1993)105. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of(a) DNA replication(b) RNA and protein synthesis(c) synthesis of polysaccharides(d) synthesis of lipids. (1993)106. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with(a) photorespiration (b) phototropism(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis.(1993)107. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes which is used for controlling intracellular digestion of macromolecules is(a) endoplasmic reticulum(b) nucleosome (c) lysosome(d) phagosome. (1993)108. Golgi apparatus is absent in(a) higher plants (b) yeast(c) bacteria and blue-green algae(d) none. (1993)109. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of cell membranes named(a) proteins (b) lipids(c) proteins and lipids(d) glycoproteins and glycolipids. (1993)110. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene chromosomes, pairing is(a) absent (b) occasional(c) formed between non-homologous chromosomes(d) formed between homologous chromosomes.(1993)Q111. All types of plastids possess essentially the same structure because they(a) perform the same function(b) store food materials like starch, fat and protein(c) occur in aerial parts(d) can transform from one form to another. Ans.Q112.Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of(a) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation(b) nucleus in heredity(c) chromosomes in heredity(d) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio. Ans.(b) nucleus in heredityQ113. Which one is apparato reticolare?(a) Golgi apparatus(b) Endoplasmic reticulum(c) Microfilaments(d) MicrotubulesAns.(a) Golgi apparatusQ114. An outer covering membrane is absent over(a) nucleolus (b) lysosome(c) mitochondrion (d) plastid. Ans. (a) nucleolus Q115. All plastids have similar structure because they can(a) store starch, lipids and proteins(b) get transformed from one type to another(c) perform same function(d) be present together. Ans.(b) get transformed from one type to anotherQ116. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on(a) thylakoids(b) mitochondrial surface(c) inner mitochondrial membrane(d) chloroplast surface. Ans. (c) inner mitochondrial membraneQ117. Ribosomes are the centre for(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis(c) protein synthesis (d) fat synthesis. Ans.(c) protein synthesisQ118. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?(a) DNA (b) RNA(c) Chloroplasts (d) Sphaerosomes Ans. (b) RNAQ119. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst the existing ones is(a) deposition (b) apposition(c) intussusception (d) aggregation. Ans. (c) intussusceptionQ120. Cell wall shows(a) complete permeability(b) semipermeability(c) differential permeability(d) impermeability.Ans.(a) complete permeabilityQ121. Ribosomes were discovered by(a) Golgi (b) Porter(c) de Robertis (d) Palade.Ans. d. PaladeQ122.Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was put forward by(a) Danielli and Davson (b) Singer and Nicolson(c) Garner and Allard (d) Watson and Crick.Ans. (b) Singer and NicolsonQ123. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia involved exchanging(a) cytoplasm (b) nucleus(c) rhizoid and stalk (d) gametes. Ans.(c) rhizoid and stalk Q124. The latest model for plasma membrane is(a) lamellar model(b) unit membrane model(c) fluid mosaic model(d) molecular lipid model.Ans.(c) fluid mosaic modelQ125. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in(a) nucleoplasm (b) nuclear envelope(c) nucleolus (d) cytoplasm. Ans. (d) cytoplasm.Q126. Polyribosomes are aggregates of(a) ribosomes and rRNA(b) only rRNA (c) peroxisomes(d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA. Ans.(d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA.Q127. Plasma membrane is made of(a) proteins and carbohydrates(b) proteins and lipids(c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates(d) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids. Ans. (c) proteins, lipids and carbohydratesQ128. Acetabularia. used in Hammerling’s nucleocytoplasmic experiments is(a) unicellular fungus (b) multicellular fungus(c) unicellular uninucleate green algae(d) unicellular multinucleate green algae.Ans.(c) unicellular uninucleate green algae
Q129. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane is composed of(a) phospholipids and oligosaccharides(b) phospholipids and hemicellulose(c) phospholipids and integral proteins(d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins.Ans. (d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and intrinsic proteins.
************Biomolecules(29 Oct 21)Q1 the protein responsible for blood clotting isa. Albuminsb. Globulinsc. Fibroind. FibrinogenAns. d. FibrinogenQ2 The disease diabetes mellitus is caused by deficiency of a. Iodineb. Insulinc. Phenylalanine hydroxylased. LysineAns. b. InsulinQ3 The carbohydrate which cannot be hydrolysed by the human digestive systema. starchb. glycogenc. cellulosed. AllAns. c. CelluloseQ4 Genetic material of the cella. Nucleic acidsb. proteinsc. Lipids d. CarbohydratesAns. a. Nucleic AcidsQ5 Double Helix structure DNA. Are the base pairs? a. part of the backbone structureb. inside the helixc. outside the helixd. noneAns. b. inside the helixQ6 Mutation in DNA occurs due to changes in the sequence of a. Nitrogeneous basesb. ribose unitsc. phosphate unitsd. noneAns. a. Nitrogeneous basesQ7 Which is a branched chain structurea. Amylopectin b. Amylosec. Cellulosed. NylonAns. a. AmylopectinExplanation: - Starch is made of two components: amylose, amylopectin.Q8 Antibodies area. carbohydratesb. proteinsc. lipdsd. enzymesAns. b. proteinQ9 The main structural feature of protein isa. ether linkageb. ester linkagec. peptide linkaged. allAns. c. peptide linkageQ9a. The main structural feature of sugars/ carbohydrates isa. ether linkageb. ester linkagec. peptide linkaged. allAns. a. ether linkageQ10 Enzymes belongs to which class of the compoundsa. Polysaccharidesb. Polypeptidesc. Polynitro heterocyclic compoundsd. HydrocarbonsAns. b. polypeptideExplanation: - if we take Amino Acid as AA. AA-AA-AA... = polypeptide = proteinQ11. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to forma. Monoacetateb. Tetra-acetatec. Penta-acetated. Hexa-acetateAns. c. Penta-acetateQ12 Oxygen atom of which position is missing from ribose sugar so as to make it deoxyribosea. 2'b. 3'c. 4'd. 5'Ans. a. 2'Q13 The function of enzymes in the living system is to a. transport oxygen b. provide immunityc. catalyse biochemical reactiond. provide energy.Ans. c. catalyse biochemical reactionQ14. In DNA, the complementary bases are: a. Uracil and Adenine: Cytosine and Guanineb. Adenine and Thymine: Guanine and Cytosinec. Adenine and Thymine: Guanine and Uracild. Adenine and Guanine: Thymine and CytosineAns. b.Adenine and Thymine: Guanine and CytosineQ14a. Purines are a. adenine & guanineb. cytosine & thyminec. adenine & thymined. guanine & cytosineAns. a. adenine & guanineQ14a. Pyrimidines are a. adenine & guanineb. cytosine & thyminec. adenine & thymined. guanine & cytosineAns. b. cytosine & thymineQ15. Glucose molecule reacts with X no. of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is a. Threeb. Twoc. Oned. FourAns. a. ThreeExplanation: - Phenylhydrazine = (C6H8N2) = C6H5NHNH2
*****1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives(a) β-D-glucose + α-D-fructose(b) α-D-glucose + β-D-glucose(c) α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose(d) α-D-fructose + β-D-fructose.Ans. c2. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is(a) amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 α-linkage(b) amylose have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkagec. amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkaged. amylose is made up of glucose and galactoseAns. aQ3.Q4. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose(c) Maltose (d) Lactose Ans.b5. D(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would beQ6. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?(a) α-D-galactopyranose and β-D-glucopyranose(b) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose(c) β-D-glucopyranose and α-D-fructofuranose(d) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructopyranoseAns. b. Q7 Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+)–lactose?(a) On hydrolysis (+)–lactose gives equal amount of D(+)–glucose and D(+)–galactose.(b) (+)–Lactose is a β-glucoside formed by theunion of a molecule of D(+)–glucose and a molecule of D(+)–galactose.(c) (+)–Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.(d) (+)–Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8 –OH groups.Ans. cQ8. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?(a) (+)–Sucrose (b) (+)–Lactose(c) (+)–Maltose (d) (–)–FructoseAns. a9. Fructose reduces Tollens’ reagent due to(a) asymmetric carbons(b) primary alcoholic group(c) secondary alcoholic group(d) enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.Ans. dQ10. Number of chiral carbons in -D-(+) glucose is(a) five (b) six(c) three (d) four.Ans.dQ11. Glycolysis is(a) oxidation of glucose to glutamate(b) conversion of pyruvate tocitrate(c) oxidation of glucose to pyruvate(d) conversion of glucose to haem.Ans.cQ12. Cellulose is polymer of(a) glucose (b) fructose(c) ribose (d) sucroseAns.a.Q13. Which of the following gives positive Fehling solution test?(a) Sucrose (b) Glucose(c) Fats (d) Protein Ans.b.Q14. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are(a) epimers (b) anomers(c) enantiomers (d) diastereomers.Ans. bQ15. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?(a) Fructose (b) Glucose(c) Sucrose(d) MaltoseAns.a.Q16. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of molecules of phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is(a) two (b) one(c) four (d) three.Ans.dQ17. The oxidation of glucose is one of the most important reactions in a living cell. What is the number of ATP molecules generated in cells from one molecule of glucose?(a) 28 (b) 38(c) 12 (d) 18Ans.b. Q18. The α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose differ from each other due to difference in carbon atom with respect to its(a) number of OH groups(b) size of hemiacetal ring(c) conformation(d) configuration. Ans. d.Q19. Chemically considering digestion is basically(a) anabolism(b) hydrogenation(c) hydrolysis(d) dehydrogenation. Ans.c.20. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get(a) glucose (b) fructose(c) both (a) and (b) (d) sucrose. Ans.a21. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?(a) Serine (b) Alanine(c) Tyrosine (d) Lysine Ans. d22. The non-essential amino acid among the following is(a) lysine (b) valine(c) leucine (d) alanine.Ans. d23. Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) intact during denaturation process?(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures(b) Primary structure only(c) Secondary structure only(d) Tertiary structure only Ans. bQ24. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion?(a) Aniline(b) Acetanilide(c) Benzoic acid(d) GlycineAns. dQ25. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by(a) peptide bond(b) dative bond(c) α-glycosidic bond(d) β-glycosidic bond.Ans. aQ26. Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct?(1) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.(2) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.(3) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted.(a) (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (3)(c) (1) and (2) (d) (1), (2) and(3)Ans. cQ27. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?(a) Thioester (b) Thioether(c) Thiol (d) Thiolactone Ans. c28. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain?a. -NH-CO-NH-C-NH-CO=NH-b. -NH-CO-C-C-C-C-NH-C-C-C-c. -NH-C-CO-NH-C-CO-NH-C-CO-d. -NH-C-C-CO-NH-C-C-NH-CO-C-C-Ans. cQ29. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it a. functions as a catalyst for biological reactionsb. maintains blood sugar levelc. acts as an oxygen carrier in the bloodd. forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases.Ans. cQ30. The helical structure of protein is stabilised by(a) dipeptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds(c) ether bonds (d) peptide bondsAns. bQ31. Which is not true statement?a. alpha C of alpha amino acid is asymmetricb. all proteins are found in L-formc. human body can synthesise all proteins they need.d. at pH=7 both amino and carboxylic groups exist in ionised formAns. bQ32 -CO-NH peptide bondwhich statement is incorrect about peptide bond?a. C-N bond length in proteins is longer than usual bond length of N-C bondb. Spectroscopic analysis shows planar structurec. C-N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual bond length of C-N bondd. None of the above.Ans. aQ33. Which is the correct statement?(a) Starch is a polymer of α-glucose.(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose.(c) Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.(d) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.Ans. aQ34. Haemoglobin is(a) a vitamin (b) a carbohydrate(c) an enzyme(d) a globular protein.Ans. d. Q35 The secondary structure of a protein refers to(a) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain(b) three-dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain(c) mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups(d) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain.Ans. aQ36 36. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process protein + enzyme A --> polypeptides + enzyme B----> amino acidsa. invertase and zymaseb. amylase and maltasec. diastase and lipased. pepsin and trypsinAns. dQ37. Enzymes are made up of(a) edible proteins(b) proteins with specific structure(c) nitrogen containing carbohydrates(d) carbohydrates.Ans. b38. Which of the following is correct?(a) Cycloheptane is an aromatic compound.(b) Diastase is an enzyme.(c) Acetophenone is an ether.(d) All of these.Ans. b39. The function of enzymes in the living system is to(a) catalyse biochemical reactions(b) provide energy(c) transport oxygend. provide immunityAns. aQ40 Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?(a) Enzymes catalyse chemical reactions by increasing the activation energy.(b) Enzymes are highly specific both in binding chiral substrates and in catalysing their reactions.(c) Enzymes lack in nucleophilic groups.(d) Pepsin is proteolytic enzyme.Ans. b.Q 41. Enzymes take part in a reaction and(a) decrease the rate of a chemical reaction(b) increase the rate of a chemical reaction(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these.Ans. b.42. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease(a) convulsions (b) beri-beri(c) cheilosis (d) sterilityAns.b.43. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?(a) Vitamin B complex(b) Vitamin D(c) Vitamin E(d) Vitamin A Ans. a44. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B Ans. d. 45. The human body does not produce(a) enzymes (b) DNA (c) vitamins (d) hormones. Ans. c. 46. Vitamin B12 contains (a) Fe (II) (b) Co (III) (c) Zn (II) (d) Ca (II)Ans. b47. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from(a) Amino acids→ Proteins→ DNA(b) DNA →Carbohydrates→Proteins(c) DNA →RNA →Proteins(d) DNA →RNA →CarbohydratesAns.c48. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is(a) the sugar component in RNA is a arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose(b) the sugar component in RNA is 2-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose(c) the sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose.Ans. d49. In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are(a) phosphate linkage(b) H-bonding(c) glycosidic linkage(d) peptide linkage. Ans. b50. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is(a) ribose (b) gene(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide. Ans. b51. In DNA, the complimentary bases are(a) adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine(b) uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine(c) adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine(d) adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil.Ans. c52. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to(a) chiral bases(b) chiral phosphate ester units(c) D-sugar component(d) L-sugar componentAns. c53. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amin oacid?(a) Three (b) Four(c) One(d) TwoAns. a. three54. Chargaff’s rule states that in an organism(a) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)(b) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)(c) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G)(d) amounts of all bases areequal. Ans. a55. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in nucleotide?(a) A – T, G – C (b) A – G , T – C(c) G – T, A – C (d) A – A, T – TAns. a56. An example of biopolymer is(a) teflon (b) neoprene(c) nylon-6, 6 (d) DNA. Ans. d57. The couplings between base units of DNA is through(a) hydrogen bonding(b) electrostatic bonding(c) covalent bonding(d) van der Waals’ forcesAns. aQ58. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg- white.(b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.(c) Denaturation makes the proteins more active.(d) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human bodyAns. c59. Which of the following hormones is produced under the conditions of stress which stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?(a) Thyroxin (b) Insulin(c) Adrenaline (d) EstradiolAns. c. Adrenaline60. Which of the following hormones contains iodine?(a) Testosterone (b) Adrenaline (c) Thyroxine (d) InsulinAns. C61. Which of the following is an amine hormone?(a) Insulin (b) Progesterone(c) Thyroxine (d) OxypurinAns. C62. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone?(a) Adrenaline (b) Glucagon(c) Testosterone (d) Thyroxine Ans. C. testosterone63. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is(a) cortisone (b) bile acids(c) adrenaline (d) insulin.Ans. d. insulinQ64. Which one is responsible for production of energy in biochemical reaction?(a) Thyroxine (b) Adrenaline(c) Oestrogen (d) Progesterone Ans. a65. The cell membranes are mainly composed of(a) fats (b) proteins(c) phospholipids(d) carbohydrates.Ans. c66. Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with(a) three carboxylic acid residues(b) two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group(c) one carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups(d) three phosphate groups.Ans. b67. The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is (a) 56 (b) 36(c) 130 (d) 86Ans. c. 130
*****1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives(a) β-D-glucose + α-D-fructose(b) α-D-glucose + β-D-glucose(c) α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose(d) α-D-fructose + β-D-fructose.Ans. c2. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is(a) amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 α-linkage(b) amylose have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkagec. amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkaged. amylose is made up of glucose and galactoseAns. aQ3.Q4. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose(c) Maltose (d) Lactose Ans.b5. D(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would beQ6. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?(a) α-D-galactopyranose and β-D-glucopyranose(b) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose(c) β-D-glucopyranose and α-D-fructofuranose(d) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-fructopyranoseAns. b. Q7 Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+)–lactose?(a) On hydrolysis (+)–lactose gives equal amount of D(+)–glucose and D(+)–galactose.(b) (+)–Lactose is a β-glucoside formed by theunion of a molecule of D(+)–glucose and a molecule of D(+)–galactose.(c) (+)–Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.(d) (+)–Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8 –OH groups.Ans. cQ8. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?(a) (+)–Sucrose (b) (+)–Lactose(c) (+)–Maltose (d) (–)–FructoseAns. a9. Fructose reduces Tollens’ reagent due to(a) asymmetric carbons(b) primary alcoholic group(c) secondary alcoholic group(d) enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.Ans. dQ10. Number of chiral carbons in -D-(+) glucose is(a) five (b) six(c) three (d) four.Ans.dQ11. Glycolysis is(a) oxidation of glucose to glutamate(b) conversion of pyruvate tocitrate(c) oxidation of glucose to pyruvate(d) conversion of glucose to haem.Ans.cQ12. Cellulose is polymer of(a) glucose (b) fructose(c) ribose (d) sucroseAns.a.Q13. Which of the following gives positive Fehling solution test?(a) Sucrose (b) Glucose(c) Fats (d) Protein Ans.b.Q14. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are(a) epimers (b) anomers(c) enantiomers (d) diastereomers.Ans. bQ15. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?(a) Fructose (b) Glucose(c) Sucrose(d) MaltoseAns.a.Q16. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of molecules of phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is(a) two (b) one(c) four (d) three.Ans.dQ17. The oxidation of glucose is one of the most important reactions in a living cell. What is the number of ATP molecules generated in cells from one molecule of glucose?(a) 28 (b) 38(c) 12 (d) 18Ans.b. Q18. The α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose differ from each other due to difference in carbon atom with respect to its(a) number of OH groups(b) size of hemiacetal ring(c) conformation(d) configuration. Ans. d.Q19. Chemically considering digestion is basically(a) anabolism(b) hydrogenation(c) hydrolysis(d) dehydrogenation. Ans.c.20. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get(a) glucose (b) fructose(c) both (a) and (b) (d) sucrose. Ans.a21. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?(a) Serine (b) Alanine(c) Tyrosine (d) Lysine Ans. d22. The non-essential amino acid among the following is(a) lysine (b) valine(c) leucine (d) alanine.Ans. d23. Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) intact during denaturation process?(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures(b) Primary structure only(c) Secondary structure only(d) Tertiary structure only Ans. bQ24. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion?(a) Aniline(b) Acetanilide(c) Benzoic acid(d) GlycineAns. dQ25. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by(a) peptide bond(b) dative bond(c) α-glycosidic bond(d) β-glycosidic bond.Ans. aQ26. Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct?(1) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.(2) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.(3) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted.(a) (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (3)(c) (1) and (2) (d) (1), (2) and(3)Ans. cQ27. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins?(a) Thioester (b) Thioether(c) Thiol (d) Thiolactone Ans. c28. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain?a. -NH-CO-NH-C-NH-CO=NH-b. -NH-CO-C-C-C-C-NH-C-C-C-c. -NH-C-CO-NH-C-CO-NH-C-CO-d. -NH-C-C-CO-NH-C-C-NH-CO-C-C-Ans. cQ29. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it a. functions as a catalyst for biological reactionsb. maintains blood sugar levelc. acts as an oxygen carrier in the bloodd. forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases.Ans. cQ30. The helical structure of protein is stabilised by(a) dipeptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds(c) ether bonds (d) peptide bondsAns. bQ31. Which is not true statement?a. alpha C of alpha amino acid is asymmetricb. all proteins are found in L-formc. human body can synthesise all proteins they need.d. at pH=7 both amino and carboxylic groups exist in ionised formAns. bQ32 -CO-NH peptide bondwhich statement is incorrect about peptide bond?a. C-N bond length in proteins is longer than usual bond length of N-C bondb. Spectroscopic analysis shows planar structurec. C-N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual bond length of C-N bondd. None of the above.Ans. aQ33. Which is the correct statement?(a) Starch is a polymer of α-glucose.(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose.(c) Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.(d) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.Ans. aQ34. Haemoglobin is(a) a vitamin (b) a carbohydrate(c) an enzyme(d) a globular protein.Ans. d. Q35 The secondary structure of a protein refers to(a) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain(b) three-dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain(c) mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups(d) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain.Ans. aQ36 36. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process protein + enzyme A --> polypeptides + enzyme B----> amino acidsa. invertase and zymaseb. amylase and maltasec. diastase and lipased. pepsin and trypsinAns. dQ37. Enzymes are made up of(a) edible proteins(b) proteins with specific structure(c) nitrogen containing carbohydrates(d) carbohydrates.Ans. b38. Which of the following is correct?(a) Cycloheptane is an aromatic compound.(b) Diastase is an enzyme.(c) Acetophenone is an ether.(d) All of these.Ans. b39. The function of enzymes in the living system is to(a) catalyse biochemical reactions(b) provide energy(c) transport oxygend. provide immunityAns. aQ40 Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?(a) Enzymes catalyse chemical reactions by increasing the activation energy.(b) Enzymes are highly specific both in binding chiral substrates and in catalysing their reactions.(c) Enzymes lack in nucleophilic groups.(d) Pepsin is proteolytic enzyme.Ans. b.Q 41. Enzymes take part in a reaction and(a) decrease the rate of a chemical reaction(b) increase the rate of a chemical reaction(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these.Ans. b.42. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease(a) convulsions (b) beri-beri(c) cheilosis (d) sterilityAns.b.43. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?(a) Vitamin B complex(b) Vitamin D(c) Vitamin E(d) Vitamin A Ans. a44. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B Ans. d. 45. The human body does not produce(a) enzymes (b) DNA (c) vitamins (d) hormones. Ans. c. 46. Vitamin B12 contains (a) Fe (II) (b) Co (III) (c) Zn (II) (d) Ca (II)Ans. b47. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from(a) Amino acids→ Proteins→ DNA(b) DNA →Carbohydrates→Proteins(c) DNA →RNA →Proteins(d) DNA →RNA →CarbohydratesAns.c48. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is(a) the sugar component in RNA is a arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose(b) the sugar component in RNA is 2-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose(c) the sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose(d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2-deoxyribose.Ans. d49. In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are(a) phosphate linkage(b) H-bonding(c) glycosidic linkage(d) peptide linkage. Ans. b50. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is(a) ribose (b) gene(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide. Ans. b51. In DNA, the complimentary bases are(a) adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine(b) uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine(c) adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine(d) adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil.Ans. c52. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to(a) chiral bases(b) chiral phosphate ester units(c) D-sugar component(d) L-sugar componentAns. c53. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amin oacid?(a) Three (b) Four(c) One(d) TwoAns. a. three54. Chargaff’s rule states that in an organism(a) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)(b) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)(c) amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G)(d) amounts of all bases areequal. Ans. a55. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in nucleotide?(a) A – T, G – C (b) A – G , T – C(c) G – T, A – C (d) A – A, T – TAns. a56. An example of biopolymer is(a) teflon (b) neoprene(c) nylon-6, 6 (d) DNA. Ans. d57. The couplings between base units of DNA is through(a) hydrogen bonding(b) electrostatic bonding(c) covalent bonding(d) van der Waals’ forcesAns. aQ58. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg- white.(b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting.(c) Denaturation makes the proteins more active.(d) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human bodyAns. c59. Which of the following hormones is produced under the conditions of stress which stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?(a) Thyroxin (b) Insulin(c) Adrenaline (d) EstradiolAns. c. Adrenaline60. Which of the following hormones contains iodine?(a) Testosterone (b) Adrenaline (c) Thyroxine (d) InsulinAns. C61. Which of the following is an amine hormone?(a) Insulin (b) Progesterone(c) Thyroxine (d) OxypurinAns. C62. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone?(a) Adrenaline (b) Glucagon(c) Testosterone (d) Thyroxine Ans. C. testosterone63. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is(a) cortisone (b) bile acids(c) adrenaline (d) insulin.Ans. d. insulinQ64. Which one is responsible for production of energy in biochemical reaction?(a) Thyroxine (b) Adrenaline(c) Oestrogen (d) Progesterone Ans. a65. The cell membranes are mainly composed of(a) fats (b) proteins(c) phospholipids(d) carbohydrates.Ans. c66. Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with(a) three carboxylic acid residues(b) two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group(c) one carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups(d) three phosphate groups.Ans. b67. The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is (a) 56 (b) 36(c) 130 (d) 86Ans. c. 130
Question /Test paper - 1Q1 scientific name of wheat a. Triticum aestivumb. Solanum nigrumc. Zea maysd. Oryza sativaAns.Q2 Correct paira. Mucosa domestica - Order dipterab. Triticum aestivum - polesc. Maize - family ancaradiaceaed. Lion - family - canideaeAns. Q3 scientific naming of animals is done bya. Indian code of zoological nomenclatureb. International code of botanical nomenclaturec. International code of zoological nomenclatured. IUCNAns.Q4 Father of taxonomya. RH Whittakerb. Aristotle c. Carolus Linnaeusd. GJ MendelAns. Q5 Cyanobacteria is also known asa. Archaebacteriab. Chemoautotrophic bacteriac. Methanogensd. Blue green algaeAns.Q6. not a taxona. Familyb. Genusc. Florad. DivisionAns.Q7. Archaebacteria found in saltwater are calleda. Methanogensb. Acidophilesc. Thermophilesd. HalophilesAns. Q8 Archaegoniophore is not found in a. Angiospermb. Gymnospermc. Bryophytesd. PteriodiophytesAns. Q9 What is true for the fungi Deuteromycetesa. Their vegetative stages are not known b. Their asexual stages are not knownc. Their sexual stages are not knownd. They produce by zoomakers with Ans. Q10 Capsid of viruses is made a. RNAb. DNAc. protein d. capsulesAns.